GATE online information system

GATE - 2009 (Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering)

The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is an all-India examination administered and conducted in eight zones across the country by the GATE Committee comprising faculty from Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore and seven Indian Institutes of Technology on behalf of the National Coordinating Board-GATE, Department of Education, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), Government of India.

JMET - 2009 (Joint Management Entrance Test)

Admission to Postgraduate Degree Programmes in Management at IISc Bangalore, IIT Bombay, IIT Delhi, IIT Kanpur, IIT Kharagpur, IIT Madras and IIT Roorkee for the academic year 2008 - 2009 will be open only to those who qualify in JMET - 2008.

GATE

JMET

ONLINE APPLICATION FOR GATE

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About GATE Examination
Candidates will be required to appear in a single paper of three hours duration. The examination will be held from 09:30 hours to 12:30 hours on Sunday, February 08, 2009. The list of papers for GATE 2009 is given under Structure of GATE. The question papers will be in English only.

Before applying for GATE 2009, candidates must assure themselves that they have chosen the right paper, which qualifies them to become eligible to seek admission to the specific programme they are interested in. The criteria for postgraduate admission with Scholarship/ Assistantship are different in various Institutes/Universities. GATE Offices will not provide any information in this regard. For more details, the candidates are required to contact the Institutes/Universities to which they are interested in seeking admission.

The choice of the paper is the responsibility of the candidate.

Information about the pattern of the question papers is given under Question Paper Pattern.

IMPORTANT DATES OF GATE
Commencement of :
1) Sale of information brochure and offline application forms - 22nd September 2008 - Monday
2) Online application form submission - 22nd September 2008 -Monday

Last date of issue of Information Brochure and Application forms:
1) by post from GATE Offices -17th October 2008 -Friday
2) at bank counters - 24th October 2008 - Friday
3) at GATE office counters - 29th October 2008 - Wednesday

Last date for :
1) Online application form submission (website closure) - 24th October 2008 - Friday
2) Receipt of completed Online/Offline Application Form at respective zonal GATE Office - 29th October 2008 - Wednesday

Date of the examination 08th February 2009 - Sunday

Announcement of results - 15th March 2009 - Sunday

APPLICATIONS INVITED 

Important Dates

Date of Examination: 20-7-2008 (SUNDAY)
Last Date of Application: 5pm on 30-6-2008 (MONDAY)
Examination Centres: Trivandrum, Ernakulam, Kozhikkode
Time of Examination: 10.00 AM TO 12.00 NOON
To see more click here

http://www.careers-india.com/forums/viewtopic.php?f=9&t=136

General English

Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.
Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.
Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.
41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?
(A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor
(B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
(C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor
(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor
(E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor
42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—
(A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion
(B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion
(C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
(D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
(E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion
43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
1. Demand for such products was high.
2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders.
3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?
1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks.
2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor.
3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal.
(A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ?
(A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
(B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology.
(C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts
(D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs
(E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts

46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor
1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.
3. Lack of self-control.
(A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
(A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks
(B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs
(C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest
(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
(B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
(C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households
(D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas
(E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa

49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders.
2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save.
3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
(A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated constantly
(B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit
(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor
(D) Products with commitment features will not be successful
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. purely :
(A) morally
(B) honestly
(C) completely
(D) perfectly
(E) cleanly

52. demonstrate :
(A) protest
(B) occur
(C) estimate
(D) appear
(E) prove

53. remedy :
(A) medicine
(B) solve
(C) restore
(D) therapy
(E) heal
Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. optional :
(A) voluntary
(B) compromise
(C) pressure
(D) mandatory
(E) free

55. accessible :
(A) convenient
(B) unavailable
(C) unfavourable
(D) unpleasant
(E) formal
Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessaryfunds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign / investment in real estate. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.
(A) Led to (B) Will lead towards
(C) And has led in (D) Which has led to
(E) No correction required
67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression.
(A) You delay to take
(B) If you delay taking
(C) Your delay in taking
(D) To delay by taking
(E) No correction required
68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low.
(A) Student itself is
(B) Students themselves are
(C) Students have
(D) Student himself has
(E) No correction required
69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project.
(A) Absent of
(B) In the absence of
(C) Because of the absence
(D) Without being absent
(E) No correction required
70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed.
(A) Can never claim
(B) Being claimed
(C) Not able to claim
(D) Have not any claim
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.
(A) set, following
(B) voted, subsequent
(C) selected, despite
(D) approved, because
(E) decided, after
77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week.
(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial
(E) Admitting, special
78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit.
(A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss
(E) growth, advance
79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and senior citizens.
(A) approximate, held
(B) nearly, authorised
(C) over, maintain
(D) above, open
(E) around, operated
80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online.
(A) announced, benefits
(B) offered, course
(C) imparted, risks
(D) sanction, skills
(E) provided, how
Answewrs With Explanation :
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e)
51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (c) In C part not is redundant.
57. (e)
58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’.
59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’.
60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism of the two sentences.
61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence.
62. (e)
63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb.
64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular.
65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’.
66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a)
71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective.
72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate.
73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’.
74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’.
75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’.
76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E)

SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN, How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE coded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 written in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 written in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI be coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7. So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, & L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as 918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded as 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as 76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is coded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7 , therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 35791, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI is coded as 3894781.

FREE SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10

1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to –

M.Natarajan
Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar
Prof. G.Venkatraman
Dr. Naresh Trehan

2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is –

Birgit Prinz
Christiane
Marta
Sania Mirza

3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games is-

Fuwa
Izz
Cobi

4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ?

Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar
Karnataka

5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ?

Shobha De
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh

6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?

Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj

7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
Paraguay
Sudan
Afghanistan
Pakistan

8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -

15th March,2008
30th March,2008
28th April,2008
4th May,2008

9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan
10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?

Parvathy Omanakuttan
Simaran Kaur Mundi
Amrita Thapar
Tanvi Vyas

SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ

Objective 10 questions

1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?

Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home

font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?

Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?

TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?

Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?

No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?

Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page?

Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:

Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints:

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Ans. a.) Schering bridge

2. LBDT is uses as a –
a) . Displacement transducer
b.) Pressure transducer
c.) Temperature
d.) Any of the above

Ans. a). Displacement transducer

3. Polarization is a measure of -
a.) Dielectric constant per unit volume.
b. ) Voltage gradient to produce electrical breakdown
c.) Product of charge and distance
d.) Excess charge density

Ans. a.) Dielectric constant per unit volume

4. Compared to the inductive type of transducer, capacitive transducer is superior for the measurement of displacement because of -
a.) Absence of non-linearity
b.) High frequency response
c.) Small size
d.) High accuracy

Ans. b.) High frequency response

5. An incremental model of a solid state device is one which represents the –
a.) ac property of the device at the desired operating point
b. ) dc property of the device at all operating points
c.) Complete ac and dc behaviour of the device at all operating points
d.) ac property of the device at all operating points.

Ans. a.) ac property of the device at the desired operating point

6. The ac resistance of a forward biased p-n junction diode operating at a bias voltage ‘V’ and carrying current ‘I’ is –
a. ) Zero
b. ) a constant value independent of Vand I
c.) V/I
d.) Delta V/Delta I

Ans. d). Delta V/Delta I

7. A meter is shielded with a soft iron to –
a. ) Prevent damage from rough use
b.) Keep moisture out of movement
c. ) Protect meter movement from stray magnetic fields
d.) Achieve all of the above

Ans. c. )Protect meter movement from stray magnetic fields

8. A capacitor that has been connected across a battery for comparatively long time becomes–
a. ) Charged
b.) Discharged
c.) Short - circuited
d.) Defective

Ans. a. )Charged

9. The charge on the plates of a capacitor is given by the expression –
a.) Q = VI
b.) Q = IR
c.) Q = CV
d.) Q = IC

Ans. c.) Q = CV

10. Silicon steel used for electrical purposes has silicon percentage of –
a. ) 0.5
b.) 2.5
c.) 3.4
d) . None

Ans. c.) 3.4

11. The feature of VTM is its –
a. ) Low input impedance
b. ) Low power consumbtion
c. ) The ability to measure wider ranges of voltage and resistances
d) . None

Ans. c. )The ability to measure wider ranges of voltage and resistances

12. In an N-type semiconductor, the position of the fermi level –
a. ) Is lower than the centre of the energy gap
b.) Is at the centre of the energy gap
c.) Is higher than the centre of the energy gap
d. ) Can be anywhere depending upon the doping concentration

Ans. c.)Is higher than the centre of the energy gap

13. A JFET can operate in –
a.) depletion and enhancement model
b. ) depletion mode only
c. ) enhancement mode only
d.) neither enhancement nor depletion mode

Ans. b. )depletion mode only

14. Consider the following semiconductor diodes –
a. ) Germanium diode
b.) Silicon diode
c.) Tunnel diode
d.) Schottky diode

Ans. c.) Tunnel diode

15. A diode with a PIV of 50V is likely to break down when rectifying 50v ac supply because –
a.) it is made of defective material
b.) it is incorrectly connected to the supply
c.) peak value of ac supply exceeds the PIV value
d. ) ac supply is of extremely high frequency.

Ans. c.) peak value of ac supply exceeds the PIV value

16. The set of transistor characteristics that enables a to be determined directly from the slope is –
a.) CE transfer characteristics
b. ) CE output characteristics
c.) CB transfer characteristics
d.) CB input characteristics

Ans. c.) CB transfer characteristics

17. For an N-channel JFET, the drain voltage has to be –
a.) positive with respect to the source
b.) negative with respect to the source
c.) uncharged with respect to the source
d.) none

Ans. a.) positive with respect to the source

18. The SCR is often employed as a –
a. ) Source-controlled switch
b. ) Drain-controlled switch
c.) Gate-controlled switch
d) None

Ans. c.) Gate-controlled switch

19. An oscilloscope has an input impedance consisting of 1MW and 20pF in parallel. A high impedance probe connected to the input of this oscilloscope has a 10MW series resistance, this 10MW resistance –
a.) Need not be shunted
b.) Should be shunted by a 2pF capacitor
c.) Should be shunted by a 20pF capacitor
d. ) Should be shunted by a 200pF capacitor

Ans.b.) Should be shunted by a 2pF capacitor

20. Compared to silicon, gallium arsenide (GaAs) has –
a. ) Easier to grow crystals since the vapour pressure of arsenic is high
b. ) Higher optolectronic conversion efficiency
c.) Both a and b
d) . None

Ans. c.) Both a and b
21. When the network shown in the fig draw a current I and if the ends ab are shorted, the current drawn would be –
                                                 

a.) I

b.) I\ 4

c.) 4 I

d.) 2 I

Ans. a.) I

22. When all the resistances in the circuit are of one ohm each, then the equivalent resistance across the points A and B will be –

a.)1W

b.) 0.5W

c.) 2W

d). 1.5W

Ans. b.) 0.5 Ohms

23. Of the following periodic waveforms the one having only odd harmonics of sinusoidal waveform is-

a. )1 and 2

b.) 1 and 3

c. )1 and 4

d. )2 and 4

Ans. a. )1 and 2

24. When in the network shown in the given fig, the switch K is dosed at t = 0 with the capacitor uncharged then the value for di(t)/dt at t = 0 will be –

a. )100 amp./sec.

b. )–100 amp./sec.

c. )1000 amp./sec.

d. )–1000 amp./sec.

Ans. b. )–100 amp./sec.

25. For the circuit shown in the given figure, the voltage VAB is –

a. )6V

b.)10V

c. )25V

d. )40V

Ans. a.)6V

26. In the network shown in the given fig. current i = 0 when E = 4V, I = 2A and I = 1A when E = 8V, I = 2A. The Thevenin voltage and the resistance into the terminals AB are –

a. )4V, 2W

b.) 4V, 4W

c.) 8V, 2W

d.) 8V, 4W

Ans. b.) 4V, 4 Ohms

27. The effective resistance between the terminals A and B in the circuit shown in the fig. is –

a.) R

b.) R-1

c.) R/2

d.) 6/11 R

Ans. c )R/2

28. When in a two terminal network, the open circuit voltage measured at the given terminals by an electronic voltmeter is 100V and a short circuit current measured at the same terminals by an ammeter of negligible resistance is 5A then if a resistor of 80W is connected at the same terminal, then the current in the load resistor will be –
a. )1A

b.) 1.25A

c). 6A

d.) 6.25A

Ans. a.)1A

29. If for the network shown in the following fig. the value of Z(s) is   then the value of C and R are respectively –

30. In Faraday’s induction phenomenon, a changing magnetic field is accompanied by an electric field. Which of the following equation or equations represents it-

The electric potential due to an electric dipole of length L at point distance r away from it will be doubled if the -
a. ) Length L of the dipole is doubled

b. ) r is doubled

c. ) r is halved

d ) L is halved

When a particular mode is excited in a waveguide there appears an extra electric component in the direction of propogation . The resulting mode is
a. ) Longitudinal electric

b. ) Transverse electromagnetic

c. ) Transverse magnetic

d ). Transverse electric

When for a transmission line the open circuit and short circuit impedance are 20W and 5 W respectively then the characteristic impedance of the line is -
a. ) 100 Ohms

b ). 50 Ohms

c. ) 25 Ohms

d. ) 10 Ohms

In an ideal transmission line with matched load, the voltage standing wave ratio and reflection coefficient are respectively -
a. ) 1 and 1

b ). infinity and 1

c ) infinity and 0

d. ) 1 and 0

When an electric charge of 100 coulombs is enclosed in sphere of radius 100 m then the electric displacement density ( in coulomb / m2) D is –
a. ) 0.0833

b ). 0.833

c. ) 1.666

d. ) 10

For the dominant mode in a rectangular wavelength with breadth 10 cm, the guide wavelength for a signal of 2.5 GHz will be -
a. ) 12 cm

b. ) 15 cm

c. ) 18 cm

d. ) 20 cm

When the phase velocity of an electromagnetic waves depends on frequency in any medium, the phenomenon is called-
a. ) Scattering

b. )Polarization

c. ) Absorption

d. ) Dispersion

Antennas commonly used for microwave links are -

a. ) Loop antenna

b. ) Log-periodic antennas

c. ) Paraboloidal dishes

39. One of the following instrument which may be used to measure the optical activity of compounds is –
a. )Infrared spectrometer

b. ) Atomic absorption spectrometer

c. ) Polarimeter

d. ) Flouroscope

Schering bridge measures –
a. )Capacitance dielectric loss

b. ) Inductance

c. )Resistance

d. ) Mutual inductance

When a square wave is fed to an RC circuit, then –
a. ) voltage across R is square and across C is not square

b. ) voltage across C is not square and across R is not square

c. ) voltage across both R and C are square

d. ) voltage across both R and C are not square

The time constant of the RC circuit is –
a. ) less than the time period of the input square wave.

b ). much larger than the time period of the input square wave.

c. ) equal to the time period of the input square wave.

d ). none

Harmonic distortion for each frequency can be obtained by harmonic analyser of the –
a. )heterodyne type

b. ) tuned circuit type

c. ) fundamental suppression type`

d. ) bridge circuit type.

A three phase wattmeter requires –
a ). only two current coils and two pressure coils

b. )only one current coil and two pressure coil

c. ) only two current coils and one pressure coil

d. ) only current coil

A low pass filter circuit is basically –
a. ) a differentiating circuit with low time constant

b. ) a differentiating circuit with large time constant.

c. ) an integrating circuit with low time constant.

d. )an integrating circuit with large time constant.

If the differential pressure in restriction type flow measuring devices is then the flow will be proportional to –

When a system is represented by the transfer function then the dc gain of this system is –
a.) 1

b.) 2

c.) 5

d.) 10

Silicon based semiconductor device called thyristor was first fabricated by –

a). Jell laboratories in U.S.A

b). Maxwell laboratories in U.S.A

c.) Bell laboratories in U.S.A

d). GEC laboratories in U.S.A

A semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500mV/0C. This transducer is indeed a –

a.)Thermistor

b.) Forward biased pn junction diode

c. )Reverse biased pn junction diode

d.) FET

Which of the followings pairs of Telemetry situations and Modulation techniques and conditions is correctly matched-

a. )Pulse amplitude modulation Low amplitude signals

b. )Pulse position modulation For short distance when power is enough

c.) Pulse width modulation Power to be spent in telemetry is required to be low

d.) Pulse code modulation. Minimisation of interference effects.

The SCR ratings di/dt in A/m sec and dv/dt in n/m sec, may vary, respectively between-

a.) 20 to 500, 10 to 100

b. )both 20 to 500

c.) both 10 to 100

d.) 50 to 300, 20 to 500

Match the given controlled rectifiers with 50 Hz supply

a. )1 phase full converter with source inductance

b. )3 phase full converter

c.)3 phase semiconductor

d. )3 phase halls wave converter

For natural or forced commutation the cyclo converters (CCs) requires as under.
a) natural commutation in both step up and step down CCs

b.) forced commutation in both step up and step down CCs

c.) forced commutation in step up CCs

d). forced commutation in step down CCs

The peak inverse voltage in ac to dc converter system is highest in-
a). single phase full wave mid point converter

b). single phase full converter

c) 3 phase bridge converter

d). 3 phase half wave converter.

A single phase full converter feeds power to RLE load with R = 6 W L = 6 MH and E = 60 V. The ac source voltage is 230 V, 50 Hz, For continuous conduction, the average value of load current for a firing angle delay of 50 is
a.)12.181 A

b). 14.81 A

c). 16.76 A

d.) 32.40 A

Which one of the following is the Fourier transform of the signal given in fig. B if the Fourier transform of the signal in fig A is given by -

What is 215 complement of 00011100-
a.) 11100011

b.) 10001100

c.) 11100100

d.) 10000111

In C programming a expression contains relational operators, assignment operators and arithmetic operators if parentheses is absent then execution follows
a.) assignment, relational, arithmatic

b.) arithmatic, relational, assignment

c.) relational, arithmatic, assignment

d.) assignment, arithmatic, relational

In semiconductor memory information stored in form-
a.) binary

b.) hexadecimal

c.) octal

d.) ASCII

i\p to Not gate gives o/p as-
a ) inversion of some bits

b.) 2’s complement of i\p

c.) 1’s complement of i\p

d.) o/p is some as i\p

A negative logic means-
a .)logic 0 and 1 are represented by a +ve voltage respective

b). logic 0 and 1 are presented as –ve and +ve voltage

c. )logic 0 voltage is higher than logic 1 voltage level

d.) logic 0 voltage is lower than logic 1 voltage level

For designing D flip flop from SR FF a circuit is aloud at 01p of SR FF is-
a.) AND

b.) OR

c.) NOR

d.) NOT

The transistor shown in fig is

a. ) Silicon, NPN with Ic = 0.5 mA

b.) Silicon PNP with Ic = 0.5 mA

c.) Germanium PNP with IE = 0.5 mA

d.) Germanium NPN with Ic=0.5 mA

A 20,000 Ohms per volt meter will deflect full-scale with a current of -
a.) 50 mA

b.) 50 mA

c.) 100 mA

d.) 1000 mA

A plate modulated class –CRF power amplifier produces 100 KW of radiated power at 100 % modulation. The modulating audio amplifier supplies approximately ——– kW of this power-
a.)50

b).33

c).22

d).11

An amplifier without feedback has a distortion of 15 % and gain of 40. When 10% negative feedback is applied the distortion will become-
a.) 50 %

b). -45 %

c). 3%

d). -5%

MODEM implies-
a.)Modulator at transmitting side and ditector at the receiving side

b.)Which deals with analog signals and shows digital information

c.)Analog to digital at transmitting side and digital to analog at a receiving side

d).A device which deals with digital signals only

Twisted ring and ring counters are examples of –
a. )Synchronous counters

b.) Asynchronous counters

c.) both a and b

d.) None of the above

Specify Non characteristic flip flop in the following –
a.) The outputs are complement of each other

b.) The flip flop has two input signals

c.) The flip flop has two output signals

d). The flip flop is a bistable devise with only two stable states

The voltage obtained when digital input is 001 is a 3 bit R-2R ladder DIA converter is-
a.) VR/22

b.) VR/21

c.) VR/23

d.) none of the above

Identify NOT an octal number-
a.) 19

b). 15

c.) 77

d.) 101

The set of binary digits 01000100 represent’s-
a.) number 6810 in a pure binary computer

b.) number 44 in 8421 BCD code

c) Both a and b

d.) None of the above

The system matrix of a continuous time system, described in the state variable form is –

The system is stable for all values of x and y satisfying –

a.)x < 1/2, y < 1/2

b). x < 0, y < 2

c. )x > 1/2 , y >0

d.) x < 0 , y < 1/2

The break away and break in point in the root locus for open loop transfer function G(S) H(S) = are located respectively at –
a). –2 and -1

b). –2.47 and –3.77

c.) –4.27 and –7.73

d.) –7.73 and –4.27

The transfer function for the given system shown in figure is –

The type and order of the system whose Nyquist plot is shown in fig is-

a.)0.1

b.) 1,2

c.) 0,2

d). 2,1

The overall transfer function in a second order is given by-

Its resonant frequency is -

a.) 2

b.)

c).

d.) 3

The detection of an AM waveform in an Envelope –
a.)One side band and full amplitude carrier are needed

b.) Both side bands and full amplitude carrier are needed

c). Only two side bands are needed

d). Upper side band and part of carriers are needed

Satellite used for intercontinental communication is known as –
a.) Comsat

b). Dom sat

c.) Mari sat

d). Intelsat

Mark out non submarine cable –
a. )TAT – 7

b.) INTELSAT V

c.) ATLANTIS

d. )CANTAT 2

The capacity of an analog communication channel with 4kHz bandwidth and 15 dB SNR is approximately-
a). 20,000 bps

b). 16,000 bps

c.) 10,000 bps

d.) 8,000 bps

The blind speed of an MTl radar can be avoided by changing the-
a.) Carrier frequency

b.) Pulse repetition frequency

c. )Antenna rotation rate

d.) Transmitted power

The output voltage in a feedback series regulator circuit is regulated by controlling the-
a.) Magnitude of the input voltage

b.) Gain of the feedback transistor

c.) Reference voltage

d.) Voltage drop across the series pass transistor

Indicate the signal not transmitted in colour TV-
a.) Y

b.) Q

c.) R

d.) I

As frequency of singal increases-
a.) Directivity increases & beam width increases

b.) Directivity & beam width decreases

c.) Directivity increases & beam width decreases

d.) Directivity decreases & beam width increases

The number of hardware interupts (which require an external signal to interrupt) present in on 8085 mP are

a). 1

b). 4

c.) 5

d.) 13

Highest priority interupt is-

a. )INTR

b. )RST 7.5

c. )RST 6.5

d. )TRAP

One instruction cycle means-

a. )Time require to execute set of instructions

b. )Time require to execute one instruction

c.) Time require to complete one operation of accessing memory, or I/o

d.) None of above

If the clock freq. is 5 mH3 how much time is required to execute on instruction of 18 T-states-

a. )3.6 msec.

b.) 36 m sec.

c.) 36 m sec.

d.) 36 sec.

In data transfer operation which flog get affected-

a. )zero flog

b. )carry flog

c. )sign flog.

d.) none

CMP instruction comes under group -

a. )Data transfer

b. )Brouching operations

c). Machine control operation

d.) logical operations

The logic operation-

a.) are performed in relation to content of Accemce lotor

b).can be performed derectly with content of the register.

c.)are performed without content of a

d.)none of above.

What happen when PUSH instruction executed -

a.) data retrieved from stock to register

b.) data from register saved on the stock.

c.) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock.

d.) 16 bit address from stock retrieved

SIM stands for-

a. ) serial interface memory

b.) set interrupt mosk

c. ) set if minus

d.) set internal memory

Maximum clock frequency required to operate 8085-

a. )2 MHz

b.) 3 MHz

c) 6 MHz

d. )9 MHz

ASCII code is-

a). 7 bit

b). 8 bit

c.)16 bit

d.) 32 bit.

In memory mapped I/O address lines are-

a. ) 8

b.) 16

c.) 32

d.) 64

The parity bit adding technique is used for -

a. )Indexing

b. )Coding

c. )Error detection

d. )Controlling

A demultiplexer-
a. )has multiple i/p and single o/p

b.) has single i/p and multiple o/p

c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p

d.) has single i/p and single o/p

Subroutines are useful-
a. )to reduce storage requirements

b.) to increase programming speed and reduce storage

c.) most applications are same

d.) but increases expense

Nowadays we get many asking about software testing jobs. Should I select software testing as my career? How to switch to software testing from other job experience? Which institute should I join for testing course? And many more …

There is a common answer to all these questions whether you should choose software testing as your career or not? For this we should know about software testing. Software testing and quality control are the processes by means of which application quality is improved. Software testing is done in each phase of product life cycle i.e. from requirement specifications, design, coding, to the user acceptance.

Many complex software structures require in depth analytical and technical skill to test the applications. Knowledge of programming languages is required for unit testing, scripting skill essential for Automation testing.

Now we will speak about your career in software testing. No one can guide you choosing your career more than you! Its right and you are the only person to decide your career.

Do self-assessment to figure out where you can fit well. Do study of your skills, interests, strengths, weaknesses.

Ask some questions to your self like:
What is your goal in life?
What will increase your satisfaction and skill?
What is your interest?
Which skills you have developed in your life till now?
Which training you did that can be applied to future job?

By answering these questions you will automatically come to decision.

To switch to software testing career what skills you will require? Is the most important question I think?

The software testing required skills.

1. Communication: Customer communication as well as team communication most important for this job. Written communication as well!

2. Technical skill: As mentioned earlier for testing technical domain skill in languages is important.

Some of the Testing skills are:
Project life cycle,
Testing concepts,
Knowledge of testing types,
Programming languages familiarity,
Database concepts,
Test plan idea,
Ability to analyze requirements,
Documentation skill,
Testing tools

3. Leadership quality

4. Analytical and judging skill
If you don’t have some of the skills mentioned above. You can always learn the things if you have interest. Non-IT personals can also grow fast by gaining necessary skills.

Lecture 2