Voting Hours And Expected Timing For Results
Millions of Americans have already cast their ballots in the 2008 election, but Election Day is still officially November 4, when polling stations from New Hampshire to Alaska will welcome voters during a 24-hour electoral marathon.

Voting by absentee ballot or at early polling stations in nearly half the 50 US states increased dramatically this year compared to the previous election in 2004, with more than 20 million votes cast by Saturday.

But for other voters, Election Day kicks off at midnight Tuesday (0500 GMT) in two tiny towns in the northeastern state of New Hampshire, Hart’s Location and Dixville Notch.

Several voting districts in neighbouring Vermont open next at 5.00 a.m. (1000 GMT) followed by the rest of eastern states where polling stations open at 6.00 or 7.00 a.m.

Across the continental United States, with its four time zones, voting will begin between 1300 and 1500 GMT, with Alaska joining in at 1600 GMT and Hawaii at 1700 GMT.

First results from the election–projections by major television networks based on early returns and surveys of voters after the cast their ballots–can be reported as soon as a state’s polling stations close, the first being in Indiana and Kentucky at 2300 GMT and the last Alaska at 0500 GMT.

Other eastern states end voting between 7.00 p.m. and 9.00 p.m. (0000-0200 GMT Wednesday), though local authorities can extend voting hours if there are still lines of voters waiting to cast ballots at the planned closing time.

While results in races where one candidate has a clear lead could be announced immediately after a state’s polling stations shut, close races can take hours to call.

A surge in voter registration in many US states has also increased the likelihood that some districts may have to extend voting hours, and could drag out the vote counting process.

Most analysts do not expect a result in the presidential race between Democrat Barack Obama and Republican John McCain–the point when one candidate musters 270 of the 538 electoral votes up for grabs in the vote–before 0400 GMT at the earliest.

CBSE Model Question Papers for Classes X and XII

Model Question Papers for Classes X and XII were prepared by NCERT and communicated to CBSE .The question papers are prepared in the light of recommendations of position paper on Examination Reforms and National Curriculum Framework, 2005.

Click here to View the Model Question Papers

How to Meditate - Funny videos are here

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet __________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is true ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check _____

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user’s perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client’s request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a) (c) (e) (b) (b)

6. (e) (d) (a) (c) (a)

11. (b) (c) (b) (b) (a)

16. (c) (b) (d) (a) (e)

21. (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

1. A prospect means

a) any customer who walks into the bank

b) an employee of the bank

c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service

d) a depositor of the bank’

e) a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means

a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product

b) a political leader

c) a religious leader

d) a bank chairman

e) None of these

3. Innovation means

a) Compensation

b) inspiration

c) additional perquisites

d) implementing new ideas or new methods

e) None of these

4. A Call means

a) calling on friends

b) calling on bank employees

c) calling on prospective customers

d) to make telephone calls

e) calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves

a) Telemarketing

b) Digital Marketing

c) Indirect Marketing

d) Direct Marketing

e) All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include

a) Publicity on the net

b) Advertisement on the net

c) Soliciting business through e-mails

d) Tele marketing

e) All of these

7. A true marketing requires

a) Command and other mindset

b) Control Mindset

c) Passive mindset

d) Active mindset

e) None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?

a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market

b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market

c) Marketing is not required due to competition

d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization

e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?

a) Creativity

b) Team spirit

c) Motivation

d) Effective communication skills

e) All of these

10. Market information means

a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars

b) Knowledge of shopping malls

c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix

d) knowledge of various languages

e) None of these

11. Market Research is needed for

a) checking the market area

b) checking the right product to be sold

c) making proper marketing decisions

d) deciding right time to sell

e) All of these

12. Which of the following statement is true

a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses

b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies

c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees

d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function

e) Marketing is a waste of time

13. Marketing plan helps in

a) better lead generation

b) better systems

c) better results

d) improved balance sheet

e) better customer service

14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?

a) Advertisement

b) Publicity

c) Market Research

d) Market Segmentation

e) None of these

15. Motivation means

a) Inspiring employees to perform better

b) Better communication skills

c) Sales Coaching

d) Market Research

e) None of these

16. In a Selling Process in today’s world?

a) Only standard products are sold

b) No customization required

c) the seller need not have product knowledge

d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction

e) only quantum of sales matters

17. Find the true statement

a) Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time

b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population

c) Marketing involves additional work

d) Marketing involves team work

e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is

a) entire country

b) entire city

c) entire globe

d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product

e) all of these

19. Sales forecasting involves

a) Sales Planning

b) Sales Pricing

c) Distribution Channels

d) Consumer tastes

e) All of these

20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC

a) Shirts

b) Ties

c) Both A and B

d) Liberty

21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by

a) DCM

b) Maruti

c) Premier Automobiles

d) Hyundai

22. With you all the way is the slogan of

a) Vodafone

b) SBI

c) ICICI

d) Raymonds

23. Which company used the slogan “The complete Man”

a) DCM

b) GRASIM

c) RAYMONDS

d) VIMAL

24. Which brand uses the slogan “Made for each other” for its cigarettes?

a) Cavenders

b) Four Square

c) Red & White

d) Wills

25. Cross Selling means

a) Identifying customer needs

b) matching the products to customer needs

c) convincing the customers of product benefits

d) responding to questions and objections of customers

e) all of these

ANSWERS

Accountancy
Set I
Set II
Set III

Biology
Set I
Set II
Set III

Business Studies
Set I
Set II
Set III

Chemistry
Set I
Set II
Set III

For full details View….

General Awareness sample Question Paper 2008

Who amongst the following is the Head of the RBI at present?
(1) Mr. K V. Kamath
(2) Dr. Y.V. Reddy
(3) Mr. Y.R. Narayanamurthy
(4) Mr. O.P. Bhatt
(5) None of these
India has different categories of Commercial banks. Which of the following is not one such category?
(1) Private Banks
(2) Commodity Banks
(3) Nationalised Banks
(4) Co-operative Banks
(5) Foreign Banks
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently imposed a restriction on money flow in equity through ‘P-Notes’. What is the full form of ‘P-Notes’ ?
(1) Permanent Notes
(2) Purchase Notes
(3) Participatory Notes
(4) Private Notes
(5) None of these
Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which won the Twenty20 World Cup2007 ?
(1) Yuvraj Singh
(2) M.S. Dhoni
(3) Rahul Dravid
(4) Sourav Ganguly
(5) None of these
The money which Government of India spends on the development of infrastructure in country comes from which of the following sources? [pick. up the correct statement(s)]
(A) Loan from World Bank/ ADB, etc.
(B) Taxes collected from the people.
(C) Loan from the RBI.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A & B
(5) All A, B & C
Which of the following organisations / agencies has established a fund known as “Investor Protection Fund” ?
(1) SEBI
(2) NABARD
(3) Bombay Stock Exchange
(4) Ministry,.\of Health
(5) None of these

Which of the following departments of the Government of India is helping banks in disbursement of rural credit by the banks?
(1) Railways
(2) State Road Transports
(3) Posts & Telegraph
(4) Ministry of Health
(5) None of these
Which of the following types of banks are allowed to operate foreign currency accounts ?
(A) Foreign Banks
(B) Regional Rural Banks
(C) Nationalised Banks
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B & C
(5) None of these
Majority of rural people still prefer to go to which of the following for their credit needs?
(1) Money lenders
(2) Foreign banks
(3) NABARD
(4) RBI
(5) All of these

 Which of the following countries does not play international cricket? 
(1) Russia
(2) England
(3) South Africa
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
Which of the following countries in the world is the biggest consumer of gold?
(1) USA
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Russia
(4) India
(5) None of these
Many times we read in financial newspapers about ‘FII’. What is the full form of FII ? ‘
(1) Final Investment in India
(2) Foreign Investment in India
(3) Formal Investment in India
(4) Fair Institutional Investment
(5) Foreign Institutional Investment

The financial markets of which of the following countries were badly affected by sub prime crisis ?
(1) Russia
(2) Brazil
(3) UK
(4) USA
(5) None of these

One of the former Prime Ministers of which of the following countries was detained in house arrest for a short period after his/her return from a long exile?
(1) Germany
(2) France
(3) Pakistan
(4) Brazil
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries is facing problem of strike by the workers of the transport, electricity and gas companies as the present Government of the country has decided to end the pension to these workers?
(1) USA
(2) France
(3) China
(4) Nepal
(5) None of these

Benazir Bhutto is associated with which of the following political parties? 
(1) Muslim League
(2) Pakistan People’s Party
(3) Pakistan National Congress
(4) Islamic Movement of Pakistan
(5) None of these

Who amongst the following is the Secretary-General of UNO?
(1) Al Gore
(2) Shashi Tharoor
(3) Gordon Brown
(4) Hugo Chavez
(5) None of these
Manmohan Singh called George Bush to explain the difficulties he is having in implementing agreements related with which of the following with USA? 
(l}Supply of Sugar
(2) Civilian Nuclear Cooperation
(3) Purchase o£ Fighter Planes
(4) Purchase of Gas/Petroleum
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries recently decided to launch a military action in Northern Iraq where many Kurdish PKK fighters are based and they are killing people from that country ?
(1) India
(2) Afghanistan
(3) Pakistan
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Turkey
The “Orange Coalition Government” was formed once again in which of the following countries?
(1) Russia
(2) Ukraine
(3) France
(4) Germany
(5) None of these

As reported in papers the UN World Food Programmes stopped distributing food in Mogadishu town after its local head was abducted by the government soldiers of the country. Mogadishu is the capital town of
(1) Tanzania
(2) Turkey
(3) Cuba
(4) Libya
(5) Somalia
Who amongst the following leaders from USA visited Israel and Palestinian West Bank so that a solution to the Israel and Palestinian problem can be worked out?
(1) George Bush
(2) Al Gore
(3) Bill Clinton
(4) Condoleezza Rice
(5) None of these
Which of the following countries is not elected by the UN General Assembly on the non-permanent seats of the UN Security Council w.e.f. January 2008 ?
(1) Libya
(2) Vietnam
(3) Croatia
(4) Costa Rica
(5) Pakistan
Which of the following countries is not happy with the USA’s decision to award a Congressional Medal to Dalai Lama of Tibet?
(1) India
(2) Pakistan
(3) Nepal
(4) Myanmar
(5) China
 

Justine Henin won the Women’s Singles US Open Tennis Championship 2007 after defeating 
(1) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(2) Sania Mirza
(3) Dinara Safina
(4) Mathalie Dechy
(5) None of these
India won the ONGC Nehru Cup Football Tournament 2007 by beating 
(1) Syria
(2) Pakistan
(3) Britain
(4) France
(5) None of these
Who amongst the following is selected for Basava Award (2006-07) by the Karnataka Government?
(1) Manmohan Singh
(2) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(3) Sonia Gandhi
(4) Pratibha Patil
(5) None of these
Shinzo Abe who was on a visit to India in recent past is the
(1) Prime Minister of South Korea
(2) Prime Minister of North Korea
(3) Prime Minister of Japan
(4) President of South Korea
(5) None of these
Abdullah Gul’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the President of
(1) Turkey
(2) Sudan
(3) Afghanistan
(4) Pakistan
(5) None of these
Hem Dutta who was honoured with the prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award 2007 is a famous
(1) author
(2) social activist
(3) player
(4) film producer
(5) scientist
 Asafa Powell who created a new world record in 100 metres race is a citizen of 
(1) Jamaica
(2) South Africa
(3) India
(4) USA
(5) South Korea
The World Athletics Championship 2007 was organised in 
(1) Beijing
(2) New Delhi
(3) Osaka
(4) Dhaka
(5) London
Who amongst the following got third position in long jump event of the Bayer International Athletics Meet held in Germany in 2007 ?
(1) Shiny Wilson
(2) Anju Bobby George
(3) Neha Sanwal
(4) Prajakta Sawant
(5) None of these
As per the recent agreement between India and one other country the Indian Rupee can be easily swapped with
(1) Taka
(2) Riel
(3) Kyat
(4) Yen
(5) Rubble
 

The Government of India put a ban on export of which of the following commodities at the price below the price of the same in domestic market?
(1) Steel
(2) Chemical Fertiliser
(3) Pharma products’
(4) Electronic goods
(5) None of these
India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves declined sharply in recent past. What was the main reason for the same?
(1) Heavy demand of the same by foreign tourists
(2) Import of wheat from Pakistan & South Korea
(3) Appreciation of Rupee Value
(4) Instability in coalition government in Centre
(5) None of these

Which of the following is a public sector unit ?
(1) TCS
(2) ICICI Bank
(3) TESCO
(4) BHEL
(5) All of these
Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Business Meet was organised in September 2007 in 
(1) New Delhi
(2) Beijing
(3) Tokyo
(4) London
(5) Sydney
Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian hockey team who won Asia Cup 2007 held in Chennai ?
(1) Baichung Bhutia
(2) Dilip Tirkey
(3) Pankaj Advani
(4) Manavjit Singh Sandhu
(5) None of these
India launched which of the following satellites in September 2007?
(1) EDUSAT
(2) METSAT
(3) CROSAT-IIB
(4) INSAT-4CR
(5) None of these

Answers
1. (2) 2. (2)
3. (3) 4. (2)
5. (5) 6. (1) 7. (5) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (5) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (5) 20. (2) 21. (5) 22. (4) 23. (5) 24. (5) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (5) 35. (1) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (5) 39. (5) 40. (4)

General English

Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.
Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.
Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.
41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?
(A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor
(B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
(C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor
(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor
(E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor
42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—
(A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion
(B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion
(C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
(D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
(E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion
43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
1. Demand for such products was high.
2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders.
3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?
1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks.
2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor.
3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal.
(A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ?
(A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
(B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology.
(C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts
(D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs
(E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts

46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor
1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.
3. Lack of self-control.
(A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
(A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks
(B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs
(C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest
(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
(B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
(C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households
(D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas
(E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa

49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders.
2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save.
3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
(A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated constantly
(B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit
(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor
(D) Products with commitment features will not be successful
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. purely :
(A) morally
(B) honestly
(C) completely
(D) perfectly
(E) cleanly

52. demonstrate :
(A) protest
(B) occur
(C) estimate
(D) appear
(E) prove

53. remedy :
(A) medicine
(B) solve
(C) restore
(D) therapy
(E) heal
Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. optional :
(A) voluntary
(B) compromise
(C) pressure
(D) mandatory
(E) free

55. accessible :
(A) convenient
(B) unavailable
(C) unfavourable
(D) unpleasant
(E) formal
Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessaryfunds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign / investment in real estate. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.
(A) Led to (B) Will lead towards
(C) And has led in (D) Which has led to
(E) No correction required
67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression.
(A) You delay to take
(B) If you delay taking
(C) Your delay in taking
(D) To delay by taking
(E) No correction required
68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low.
(A) Student itself is
(B) Students themselves are
(C) Students have
(D) Student himself has
(E) No correction required
69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project.
(A) Absent of
(B) In the absence of
(C) Because of the absence
(D) Without being absent
(E) No correction required
70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed.
(A) Can never claim
(B) Being claimed
(C) Not able to claim
(D) Have not any claim
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.
(A) set, following
(B) voted, subsequent
(C) selected, despite
(D) approved, because
(E) decided, after
77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week.
(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial
(E) Admitting, special
78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit.
(A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss
(E) growth, advance
79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and senior citizens.
(A) approximate, held
(B) nearly, authorised
(C) over, maintain
(D) above, open
(E) around, operated
80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online.
(A) announced, benefits
(B) offered, course
(C) imparted, risks
(D) sanction, skills
(E) provided, how
Answewrs With Explanation :
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e)
51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (c) In C part not is redundant.
57. (e)
58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’.
59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’.
60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism of the two sentences.
61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence.
62. (e)
63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb.
64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular.
65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’.
66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a)
71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective.
72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate.
73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’.
74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’.
75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’.
76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E)

SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN, How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE coded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 written in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 written in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI be coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7. So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, & L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as 918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded as 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as 76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is coded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7 , therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 35791, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI is coded as 3894781.

FREE SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10

1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to –

M.Natarajan
Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar
Prof. G.Venkatraman
Dr. Naresh Trehan

2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is –

Birgit Prinz
Christiane
Marta
Sania Mirza

3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games is-

Fuwa
Izz
Cobi

4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ?

Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar
Karnataka

5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ?

Shobha De
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh

6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?

Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj

7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
Paraguay
Sudan
Afghanistan
Pakistan

8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -

15th March,2008
30th March,2008
28th April,2008
4th May,2008

9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan
10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?

Parvathy Omanakuttan
Simaran Kaur Mundi
Amrita Thapar
Tanvi Vyas

SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ

Objective 10 questions

1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?

Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home

font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?

Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?

TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?

Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?

No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?

Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page?

Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:

Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints:

The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape

(For Answers look at the bottom)

1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through
it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms-

a.) Resistance
b.) Reactance
c.) Impedance
d.) None

2. Oscillator crystal are made of –
a.) Silicon
b.) Germanium
c.) Quartz
d.) None

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
a. ) Air
b. ) Ferrite
c.) Powdered ion
d.) Steel

4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –

a.) c/2
b.) C
c.) 2C
d.) 4C

5. A superconductor is a –
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF

7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
a.) Inductance
b.) Capacitance
c.) Resistance
d.) None

8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
a.) Resistance in the line
b.) Capacitor in series with contacts
c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
d.) None

9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
a.) Class ‘A’
b.) Class ‘b’
c.) Class ‘C’
d.) None

10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero

11. The input gate current of a FET is –
a.) a few microamperes
b.) negligibly small
c.) a few milliamperes
d.) a few amperes

12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –

a.) 25 mA
b.) 40 mA
c.) 25/16 mA
d.) 10 mA

13. A step recovery diode –
a.) has on extremely short recovery time
b.) conducts equally well in both directions
c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
d.) is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
a.) 0.1V
b.) 5V
c.) 10V
d) V

15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
a.) source
b.) drain
c.) gate
d.) none

16.The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
a.) Triac
b.) UJT
c.) Diac
d.) SCR

17. A typical optical fibre has –
a.) High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
c.) Both a and b
d.) None

18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –

a.) 9
b.) 11
c.) 10
d.) 21

19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –

a.) 3 – j1
b.) 3 + j9
c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
d.) 7.5 – j 2.5

20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –

a.) 5
b.) 6.5
c.) 8
d.) 9

21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance,  is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
a.) Z0 cot h?l
b.) Z0 cot l
c.) Z0 tan h. l
d.) Z0 tan l
22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
a.) 
b.) /4
c.) /2
d.) /8
23.A relatively permanent information is stored in
a. ) ROM
b.) RAM
c.) PROM
d.) Volatile memory

24.The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –

b.) RC
c.) 2RC
d.) 4RC

25.If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ’s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –

a.) cos50tA
b.) 2A
c.) 2cos100tA
d.) 2sin50tA

26. When the  network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –

a) 9, 6 and 6
b.) 6, 6 and 9
c.) 9, 6 and 9
d.) 6, 9 and 6

27.When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –

d.) indeterminate

28.Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
a.) Electric field potential
b.) Potential
c .) Charge
d.) None of the above

29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
a.) Are parallel to each other
b.) Are one and same
c.) Cut each other orthogonally
d.) Can be inclined to each other at any angle

30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence  is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line

31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
a.) In the +x direction
b.) In the –x direction
c. ) In the +y direction
d.) In the –y direction

32. The directions of vector E and vector H in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
a.) Both E and H are transverse to the direction of propagation
b.) E is and H are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
c.) H is entirely transverse and E has a component in the direction of propagation
d. ) H is entirely transverse and E has a component in the direction of propagation

33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
a.) TM01
b.) TE10
c.) TM112
d.) TE11

34.When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –

35.. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
b.) Remain the same
c. ) Increase
d.) Decrease to zero

36. When a (75 – j40) load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75  at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
b.) An inductance at the load
c. ) A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.) none of the above

37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.

38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter

39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –

40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
a.) 11.1
b.) 44.2
c.) 52.3
d.) 66.3

41.The Q of a radio coil –
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
43.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C

45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –

a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
b.) Silicon (Si)
c.) Copper (Cu)
d.) Germanium (Ge)
46.When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
a.) 1
b.) 2
c.) 3
d.) 4
47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
a. b.
c. d.

48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters

a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
c.) step up device
d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

49) In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.

S is closed at t = 0 the
maximum value of current and the
time at which it reaches this value are respectively.

a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
b.) 50 A, 30 mS
c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

50.50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-

a.) 200 A
b.) 170.7 A
c.) 141.4 A
d.) 70.7 A

51.The transfer function of an amplifier is given by

The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately
a.) 5850 KHZ
b.) 585 KHZ
c.) 5850 HZ
d.) 585HZ

52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
a) . Higher current carrying
b.) Lower ripple factor
c.) Higher efficiency
d.) Lower peak increase voltage require

53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
a.) If the conduction angle decrease
b) .If the conduction angle increase
c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
d.) None of the above

54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
a.) 75
b.) 76
c.) 75/76
d.) -75

55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.) Its quiescent current is low
c.) It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.) It is biased well below cut off

56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.) Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.) Transformer coupling
57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides

a.) Current series feedback
b.) Current shunt feedback
c.) Voltage series feedback
d.) Voltage shunt feedback
58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
a.) PISO shift register
b.) SOIP shift register
c.) SIPO shift register
d.) POIS shift register

60. PROMs are used to store-
a.) bulk information
b.) information to be accessed rarely
c.) sequence information
d.) relatively permanent information

61.The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
a.) Output bit combination
b.) analog output voltage
c.) input bit combination
d.) none of the above
62. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
a.) s = 0, R = 0
b.) s = 1, R = 1
c.) s = 0, R = 1
d.) s = 1, R = 0
63. Name the fastest logic family-
a) TTL
b.) RTL
c.) DCTL
d.) ECL
64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB

c.) A + AB = A
d.) None of the above
65. In the given fig find radix of the system –

a.) 2
b.) 4
c.) 6
d.) 8

66.Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
a.) increase the transmission capacity
b) improve noice performance
c.) incorporate error control coding
d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal
67.The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-

a.)
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
a.) A windscreen wiper
b.) Aqualung
c.) Respiratory system of an animal
d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.
69.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . (t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
a.) 1&3
b.) 1&4
c.) 2&4
d.) 1&4

70.A system is described by

To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.

Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
a.) Only V1
b.) Only V2
c.) Both V1 and V2
d.) Neither V1 nor v2

71.Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-

73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
75.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
76.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
77.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
78.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

80.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b) . increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

82.Circuit in the given figure represents. –

a.) an astable multivibrator
b.) A monostable multivibrator
c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
d.) Ramp generator

83.. . D = r is-
a.) Maxwell’s 1st equation
b.) Maxwell’s II equation
c.) Maxwell’s III equation
d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
a.) TM00
b.) TM01
c.) Tm10
d.) TM11

85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
a) . port 4
b) . port 3
c.) port 2.
d.) port 3 & 4.

86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
a.) Barometer are used
b.) Thermisters are used
c.) Calorimetric technique
d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
87.The difference between TWT & klystron is –
a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact
88.Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
a.) Hown antennas
b.) Bioconical antennas
c.) helical antenna
d. ) Discone
89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
a.)
b. )
c.)
d.)
90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
a.) 4
b.) 6
c.) 8
c.) 10
91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
a.) 2
b.) 3
c.) 4
d.) 5
92.What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
a.) z = 0, cy = 0
b.) z = 0, cy = 1
c.) z = 1, cy = 0
d.) z = 1, cy = 1

93.Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
b.) when INTA signal is low.
c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
d.) none of above.
94.Microprogramming is a technique
a.) for programming the microprocessor
b.) for writing small programs efficiently
c.) for programming the control steps of computer
d.) for programming o/p / i/p
95.High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
a.) interpreter
b.) compiler
c.) operating
d.) system
96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
a.) 253
b.) 263
c.) 273
d.) 283
97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
a.) NAND
b.) NOR
c.) AND
d.) NOPE.
98.The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
a.) AND
b.) OR
c.) NAND
d.) X-OR
99.A symbol of JK flip flop is-

100. A demultiplener-
a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
d.) has single i/p and single o/p
101.. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
a.) fascination
b.) open approval.
c.) Indulgent tolerance.
d.) Scornful.
102. What type of sentence is this ?
Hurray! We won the match
a.) Exclamatory
b.) assertive
c.) Negative
d.) Affirmative
103. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’
a.) hour
b.) M. A.
c.) Umbrella
d.) Man
104. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –
a.) freshly
b.) freshen
c.) fresheners
d.) fresh itself
105. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –
a.) Simile
b.) inversion
c.) onomatopoeia
d.) irony
106.The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-
a.) Pentafour software
b) Infosys
c.) IBM
d.) Wipro
107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan
108.Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
a.) 42nd
b.) 43rd
c.) 40th
d.) 45th
109.New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
a.) T. Venkat Naidu
b.) K. Hari Harh
c.) N. Rengaswany
d.) M. Mudliar
110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-
a.) 311
b.) 329
c.) 356
d.) 365
111. Ostrich is a-
a.) Running bird
b.) Flying bird
c) Swimming bird
d.) Migratory bird
112.The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
a.) Oxygen
b.) Nitrogen
c.) Ozone
d.) Carbon-dioxide
113.Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
a.) Rice
b.) groundnut
c.) Sugarcane
d.) gram
114.The function of World Bank is to-
a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade
115.Speed of sound is maximum in-
a. ) Water
b.) Air
c.) Steel
d.) Vacuum
116.“Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
c.) Lajpat Rai
d.) Bhagat Singh
117. Durand cup is associated with-
a.) Hockey
b.) Tennis
c.) Football
d.) Badminton
118.Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
a.) 1908
b.) 1910
c.) 1913
d.) 1914
119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
a.) May 18, 1975
b.) May 20, 1974
c) May 17, 1974
d.) May 17, 1974

120.An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
a.) Asian development Bank
b.) World Bank
c.) Swiss Bank
d.) Reserve Bank of India

Answers
1. a.) Resistance
2. c.) Quartz
3. a. )Air
4. c.) 2C
5. a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
6. b) 10.05pF
7. a.) Inductance
8. c.) Capacitor in parallel with contacts
9. c.) Class ‘C’
10. a.) High positive
11. b.) negligibly small
12. d.) 10 mA
13. c.) is mainly used as a harmonic generator
14. b.) 5V
15. b.) drain
16. d.) SCR
17. b.) Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
18. b.) 11
19. c.) 7.5 + j 2.5
20. b.) 6.5
21. c.) Z0 tan h.Ö l
22. b.) l/4
23. c.) PROM
24. c.) 2RC
25. b.) 2A
26. b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
27. b)
28. b.) Potential
29. c.) Cut each other orthogonally
30. c)
31. c)In the +y direction
32. a.)
33. d.)
34. d)
35. d.) Decrease to zero
36. b.) An inductance at the load
37. b.) more accurate
38. b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
39. d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
40. a.) 11.1
41. d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
42. b.) 1.5
43. c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
44. d.) 12000C to 25000C
45. a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
46. a.) 1
47. b.)
48. a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
49. a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
50. b.) 170.7 A
51. a.) 5850 KHZ
52. d.)Lower peak increase voltage require
53. b).If the conduction angle increase
54. b.)76
55. b.)Its quiescent current is low
56. a.) Direct coupling
57. d.)Voltage shunt feedback
58. c)
59. c.) SIPO shift register
60. d.) relatively permanent information
61. c.) input bit combination
62. a.) s = 0, R = 0
63. d.) ECL
64. b)
65. a.) 2
66. a.) increase the transmission capacity
67. d.) 5
68. a.) A windscreen wiper
69. a.) 1&3
70. c.) Both V1 and V2
71. b)
72. a)
73. a.) 1 and 4
74. d.) 350 samples per second
75. b.) 52. And 88
76. c.) MTI radar
77. c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
78. d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
79. b.) line of sight mode
80. d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
81. c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
82. a.) an astable multivibrator
83. c.) Maxwell’s III equation
84. d.) TM11
85. a). port 4
86. d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used
87. a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
88. c.) helical antenna
89. b. )
90. b.) 6
91. c.) 4
92. c.) z = 1, cy = 0
93. c. ) interrupt flip flop enabled.
94. c.) for programming the control steps of computer
95. b.) compiler
96. b.) 263
97. a.) NAND
98. d.) X-OR
99. b)
100. b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
101. b.) open approval.
102. a.) Exclamatory
103. d.) Man
104. c.) fresheners
105. c.) onomatopoeia
106. d.) Wipro
107. c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
108. b.) 43rd
109. c.) N. Rengaswany
110. b.) 329
111. a.) Running bird
112. d.) Carbon-dioxide
113. d.) gram
114. a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
115. c.) Steel
116. b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
117. c.) Football
118. c.) 1913
119. a.) May 18, 1975
120. a.) Asian development Bank

78. Angle subtended by earth at geostationary communication satellite is -
Answer is :-a) 17.340
79. For data transmission phase modulation is commonly used because -
Answer is :-b) It is resistant to the effects of noise.
80. Several channels are interleaved and then transmitted together is known as –
Answer is :-a) Frequency division multiplex
81. Identify the wrong statement-
The radar cross section of a target -
Answer is :-d) Is equal to the actual cross-sectional area for small targets.
82. Considering following parameters -
1. Loss in the media) 2. Permeability of the media) 3. Frequency of the wave 4. Velocity of the wave. Which of these parameters are responsible for the change of phase of a propagating electromagnetic wave?
Answer is :-b) 2, 3 and 4
83. In super heterodyne receivers double spotting is caused by -
Answer is :-a) poor front-end rejection
84. The number of lines per field in the United States TV system is -
Answer is :-a) 262 1/2
85. In a TV receiver the color killer -
Answer is :-a) cuts off the chroma stages during monochrome receivers.
86. The nominal capacitance of a coaxial RF cable is of 40 pF/m and the characteristic impedance of 50W. The inductance of the cable is-
Answer is :-c) 0.1 mH/m
87. Transmission of wave through Dominant mode is -
Answer is :-a) distortion less transmission
88. Lower the standing wave ratio (SWR) -
Your Answer is –
Answer is :-b) Lower mismatch error
89. In klyrtron oscillator for getting wide range of oscillations resonators should be -
Answer is :-c) Over coupled
90. The critical frequency is always -
Answer is :-a) Lower than maximum usable frequency
91. The PIN diode based on -
Answer is :-c) Negative resistance
92. Which antenna having circular polarization -
Answer is :-c) Helical antenna
93. The i/p S/N ratio of system is 50 and the o/p S/N ratio is 5 the noise figure is -
Answer is :-c) 10
94. In the 8085 mP, the RST 6 instruction transfers the program execution to the following location -
Answer is :-a) 30 H
95. In instruction cycle first operation is -
Answer is :-c) Opcode fetch
96. CMP instruction comes under group -
Your Answer is –
Answer is :-d) Logical operations.
97. In which logic operation does not effect any flags -
Answer is :-d) CMA
98. What happen when CALL instruction executed -
Answer is :-c) 16 bit address of instruction saved on stock
99. The mark status of mark able interrupts is defined according to content of -
Answer is :-d) Accumulator
100. The decoder is a logic ckt that -
Answer is :-b) Identifies each combination of the signals present at i/p
101. The young man was quickly promoted when his employers how ————— he was -
Answer is :-c) assiduous
102. As letter is alphabet so zodiac is -
Answer is :-c) sign
103. What is the correct meaning of prudish.?
Answer is :-a) careful
104. Pick out the odd matching with reference to number -
Answer is :-b) hair – hairs
105. Choose the phrase that is most nearly similiar in meaning to the word given below-
Abut is
Answer is :-d) Adjoin
106. The highest mountain peak in Indian Territory is -
Answer is :-b) Kanchenjunga
107. German silver is an alloy comprising -
Answer is :-a) Copper, Nickel and Zinc
108. Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar’s mausoleum is in -
Answer is :-c) Yangon
109. On which date the World Trade Centre in New York and Pentagon in Washington d)C was attacked by terrorist -
Answer is :-b) 11 September 2001
110. India defeats South Africa in the finals of the inaugural champions challenge Hockey Tournament in Kualalumpur by -
Answer is :-d) 2-1
111. Which planets in the solar system are known as ‘Inferior Planets’ -
Answer is :-d) Mercury and Venus.
112. The largest Stupa in Southern India is at -
Answer is :-b) Amravati
113. The new chairman and Managing Director of Industrial Finance Corporaton of India (IFCI) is -
Answer is :-a) Mr. Vishwanath Prasad Singh
114. Which one is the latest among rock-cut temples?
Answer is :-c) Elephanta
115. Number of organisations government ban in Jammu and Kashmir and the North East under the new ordinance ‘POTO’ is -
Answer is :-d) 23
116. In bed of which river does Badrinath shrine stand?
Answer is :-c) Alakananda
117. The nerve endings for the sense of sight are located in the part of the eye called the -
Answer is :-d) Retina
118. Fundamental duties were introduced in the constitution by the -
Answer is :-b) 42nd Amendment
119. The Khalsa Panth was founded by -
Answer is :-d) Guru Govind singh
120. Number of countries involved in international fleet review hosted by India is -
Answer is :-c) 29