Voting Hours And Expected Timing For Results
Millions of Americans have already cast their ballots in the 2008 election, but Election Day is still officially November 4, when polling stations from New Hampshire to Alaska will welcome voters during a 24-hour electoral marathon.

Voting by absentee ballot or at early polling stations in nearly half the 50 US states increased dramatically this year compared to the previous election in 2004, with more than 20 million votes cast by Saturday.

But for other voters, Election Day kicks off at midnight Tuesday (0500 GMT) in two tiny towns in the northeastern state of New Hampshire, Hart’s Location and Dixville Notch.

Several voting districts in neighbouring Vermont open next at 5.00 a.m. (1000 GMT) followed by the rest of eastern states where polling stations open at 6.00 or 7.00 a.m.

Across the continental United States, with its four time zones, voting will begin between 1300 and 1500 GMT, with Alaska joining in at 1600 GMT and Hawaii at 1700 GMT.

First results from the election–projections by major television networks based on early returns and surveys of voters after the cast their ballots–can be reported as soon as a state’s polling stations close, the first being in Indiana and Kentucky at 2300 GMT and the last Alaska at 0500 GMT.

Other eastern states end voting between 7.00 p.m. and 9.00 p.m. (0000-0200 GMT Wednesday), though local authorities can extend voting hours if there are still lines of voters waiting to cast ballots at the planned closing time.

While results in races where one candidate has a clear lead could be announced immediately after a state’s polling stations shut, close races can take hours to call.

A surge in voter registration in many US states has also increased the likelihood that some districts may have to extend voting hours, and could drag out the vote counting process.

Most analysts do not expect a result in the presidential race between Democrat Barack Obama and Republican John McCain–the point when one candidate musters 270 of the 538 electoral votes up for grabs in the vote–before 0400 GMT at the earliest.

How to Meditate - Funny videos are here

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet __________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is true ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check _____

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user’s perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client’s request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a) (c) (e) (b) (b)

6. (e) (d) (a) (c) (a)

11. (b) (c) (b) (b) (a)

16. (c) (b) (d) (a) (e)

21. (d) (c) (d) (c) (b)

1. A prospect means

a) any customer who walks into the bank

b) an employee of the bank

c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service

d) a depositor of the bank’

e) a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means

a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product

b) a political leader

c) a religious leader

d) a bank chairman

e) None of these

3. Innovation means

a) Compensation

b) inspiration

c) additional perquisites

d) implementing new ideas or new methods

e) None of these

4. A Call means

a) calling on friends

b) calling on bank employees

c) calling on prospective customers

d) to make telephone calls

e) calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves

a) Telemarketing

b) Digital Marketing

c) Indirect Marketing

d) Direct Marketing

e) All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include

a) Publicity on the net

b) Advertisement on the net

c) Soliciting business through e-mails

d) Tele marketing

e) All of these

7. A true marketing requires

a) Command and other mindset

b) Control Mindset

c) Passive mindset

d) Active mindset

e) None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?

a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market

b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market

c) Marketing is not required due to competition

d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization

e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?

a) Creativity

b) Team spirit

c) Motivation

d) Effective communication skills

e) All of these

10. Market information means

a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars

b) Knowledge of shopping malls

c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix

d) knowledge of various languages

e) None of these

11. Market Research is needed for

a) checking the market area

b) checking the right product to be sold

c) making proper marketing decisions

d) deciding right time to sell

e) All of these

12. Which of the following statement is true

a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses

b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies

c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees

d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function

e) Marketing is a waste of time

13. Marketing plan helps in

a) better lead generation

b) better systems

c) better results

d) improved balance sheet

e) better customer service

14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?

a) Advertisement

b) Publicity

c) Market Research

d) Market Segmentation

e) None of these

15. Motivation means

a) Inspiring employees to perform better

b) Better communication skills

c) Sales Coaching

d) Market Research

e) None of these

16. In a Selling Process in today’s world?

a) Only standard products are sold

b) No customization required

c) the seller need not have product knowledge

d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction

e) only quantum of sales matters

17. Find the true statement

a) Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time

b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population

c) Marketing involves additional work

d) Marketing involves team work

e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is

a) entire country

b) entire city

c) entire globe

d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product

e) all of these

19. Sales forecasting involves

a) Sales Planning

b) Sales Pricing

c) Distribution Channels

d) Consumer tastes

e) All of these

20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC

a) Shirts

b) Ties

c) Both A and B

d) Liberty

21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by

a) DCM

b) Maruti

c) Premier Automobiles

d) Hyundai

22. With you all the way is the slogan of

a) Vodafone

b) SBI

c) ICICI

d) Raymonds

23. Which company used the slogan “The complete Man”

a) DCM

b) GRASIM

c) RAYMONDS

d) VIMAL

24. Which brand uses the slogan “Made for each other” for its cigarettes?

a) Cavenders

b) Four Square

c) Red & White

d) Wills

25. Cross Selling means

a) Identifying customer needs

b) matching the products to customer needs

c) convincing the customers of product benefits

d) responding to questions and objections of customers

e) all of these

ANSWERS

General English

Directions—(Q. 41–55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
A large majority of the poor in India are outside the formal banking system. The policy of financial inclusion sets out to remedy this by making available a basic banking ‘no frills’ account either with nil or very minimum balances as well as charges that would make such accounts accessible to vast sections of the population. However, the mere opening of a bank account in the name of every household or adult person may not be enough, unless these accounts and financial services offered to them are used by the account holders. At present, commercial banks do not find it viable to provide services to the poor especially in the rural areas because of huge transaction costs, low volumes of savings in the accounts, lack of information on the account holder, etc. For the poor, interacting with the banks with their paper work, economic costs of going to the bank and the need for flexibility in their accounts, make them turn to other informal channels or other institutions. Thus, there are constraints on both the supply and the demand side.
Till now, banks were looking at these accounts from a purely credit perspective. Instead, they should look at this from the point of view of meeting the huge need of the poor for savings. Poor households want to save and contrary to the common perception, do have the funds to save, but lack control. Informal mutual saving systems like the Rotating Savings and Credit Associations (ROSCAs), widespread in Africa and ‘thrift and credit groups’ in India demonstrate that poor households save. For the poor household, which lacks access to the formal insurance system and the credit system, savings provide a safety net and help them tide over crises. Savings can also keep them away from the clutches of moneylenders, make formal institutions more favourable to lending to them, encourage investment and make them shift to more productive activities, as they may invest in slightly more risky activities which have an overall higher rate of return.
Research shows the efficacy of informal institutions in increasing the savings of the small account holders. An MFI in the Philippines, which had existing account holders, was studied. They offered new products with ‘commitment features’. One type had withdrawal restrictions in the sense that it required individuals to restrict their right to withdraw any funds from their own accounts until they reached a self-specified and documented goal. The other type was deposit options. Clients could purchase a locked box for a small fee. The key was with the bank and the client has to bring the box to the bank to make the deposit. He could not dip into the savings even if he wanted to. These accounts did not pay extra money and were illiquid. Surprisingly, these products were popular even though these had restrictions. Results showed that those who opted for these accounts with restrictions had substantially greater savings rates than those who did not. The policy of financial inclusion can be a success if financial inclusion focuses on both saving needs and credit needs, having a diversified product portfolio for the poor but recognising that self-control problems need to be addressed by having commitment devices. The products with commitment features should be optional. Furthermore transaction costs for the poor could be cut down, by making innovative use of technology available and offering mobile vans with ATM and deposit collection features which could visit villages periodically.
41. What is the aim of the financial inclusion policy ?
(A) A focus on savings needs rather than credit needs of the poor
(B) Minimising utilisation of technology in banks so as to reduce transaction costs for the poor
(C) To boost low savings volumes in banks by encouraging savings among the rural poor
(D) To make formal basic banking services available to the poor
(E) To regulate the rate at which moneylenders lend to the poor
42. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—
(A) Criticise the concept of financial inclusion
(B) Point out the problems of financial inclusion
(C) Discuss ways of making the financial inclusion policy successful
(D) Compare financial inclusion policies of different countries
(E) Cite research in support of role of MFIs in achieving financial inclusion
43. Which of the following can be inferred about products with commitment features ?
1. Demand for such products was high.
2. They were an effective means of increasing the savings of small account holders.
3. Such facilities can only be offered by informal institutions like MFIs.
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these
44. Why do the poor not utilise banking services ?
1. Informal institutions offer higher rates of interest than those in banks.
2. Costs of reaching banks have to be borne by the poor.
3. Bank personnel do not treat the poor respectfully because their savings amounts are minimal.
(A) Only 2 (B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Both 2 and 3 (D) All 1, 2, and 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is a recommendation made by the author regarding financial inclusion ?
(A) Reduce the paper work involved by seeking less information about the account holder
(B) Lower transaction costs by utilising latest technology.
(C) Make commitment features compulsory for all savings accounts
(D) Entrust the responsibility of financial inclusion solely to MFIs
(E) Provide credit facilities even to those without savings accounts

46. Which of the following factors affects ‘saving’ behaviour among the poor
1. Threats from moneylenders if they avail of banking services.
2. Documentation required before availing of banking services.
3. Lack of self-control.
(A) Only 1 (B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

47. What do the results of the study conducted in the Philippines indicate ?
(A) Account holders in MFIs have higher savings rates than banks
(B) Many of the poor have to turn to moneylenders because of strict restrictions in MFIs
(C) Having accounts with restriction on withdrawal requires the bank to offer a higher rate of interest
(D) There should be strong security measures for deposit option accounts for the poor
(E) None of these

48. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) There are no informal means for the poor to save in India
(B) Having savings encourages the poor to invest only in low risk ventures
(C) There is a huge demand for savings facilities among poor households
(D) Presently commercial banks feel that it is feasible to provide banking services to the poor in rural areas
(E) There are many official innovative savings systems like roscas in Africa

49. What is/are the outcome(s) of encouraging savings for the poor ?
1. It frees them from the exploitation of moneylenders.
2. Banks are more willing to disburse loans to those who save.
3. They should invest in risky but high return ventures.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

50. What was the view of banks regarding the bank accounts of the poor in the past ?
(A) They were considered a problem since account holders information needed to be updated constantly
(B) Focus should be more on providing savings facilities not credit
(C) Moneylenders should be regulated so that they share responsibility of disbursing loans to the poor
(D) Products with commitment features will not be successful
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 51–53) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

51. purely :
(A) morally
(B) honestly
(C) completely
(D) perfectly
(E) cleanly

52. demonstrate :
(A) protest
(B) occur
(C) estimate
(D) appear
(E) prove

53. remedy :
(A) medicine
(B) solve
(C) restore
(D) therapy
(E) heal
Directions—(Q. 54-55) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

54. optional :
(A) voluntary
(B) compromise
(C) pressure
(D) mandatory
(E) free

55. accessible :
(A) convenient
(B) unavailable
(C) unfavourable
(D) unpleasant
(E) formal
Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
56. The scheme failed because / some states could not / manage not to raise / the necessaryfunds. No error. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
57. Real estate prices in the / business district of the city / are expected to rise / at 15% this year. No error (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
58. By so early as next year / that leading investment bank / has plans to open / an office in New Delhi. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
59. There is lots of / supports from the employees / for the proposal to / merge with the parent company. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
60. Experts have recommended that / the government reconsidered / restrictions imposed on foreign / investment in real estate. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
61. The crucial point to / be discussed at the / meetings is how to / well implement the policy.No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
62. He wants to / set up a laboratory / to undertake research / into a vaccine for cancer. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
63. According to him / two factors which are / needy for success / are discipline and diligence. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
64. Because of the pace at / which the company is growing / I believe it will easily / achieve their target. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
65. It is truth / that India is / the largest consumer of / gold in the world. No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 66–70) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
66. The bank is overstaffed, has led to low productivity.
(A) Led to (B) Will lead towards
(C) And has led in (D) Which has led to
(E) No correction required
67. You delay in taking a decision conveys a negative impression.
(A) You delay to take
(B) If you delay taking
(C) Your delay in taking
(D) To delay by taking
(E) No correction required
68. Today management student itself are opted to work for NGOs even though the salaries offered to them are low.
(A) Student itself is
(B) Students themselves are
(C) Students have
(D) Student himself has
(E) No correction required
69. Absence off any guidelines, they are unwilling to take up the project.
(A) Absent of
(B) In the absence of
(C) Because of the absence
(D) Without being absent
(E) No correction required
70. Without the development of rural people the country can no claim to be developed.
(A) Can never claim
(B) Being claimed
(C) Not able to claim
(D) Have not any claim
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 71–75) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e.. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. The organization preferred to hire locale population as they understood the language and customer preferences. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
72. In our opinion the exicting assessment system requires immediate revision.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
73. In responds to the advertisement a sizeable number of candidates have submitted their applications. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
74. There is no guarantee that if this model is adopted the entire sector will prosper.All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
75. With this unique initiative the company hopes to sustain its current growth rate. All Correct
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Directions—(Q. 76–80) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

76. Mr. Srinivasan is …… to become Chairman of the group …… the retirement of his father.
(A) set, following
(B) voted, subsequent
(C) selected, despite
(D) approved, because
(E) decided, after
77. …… to your error the …… consignment has been delayed by a week.
(A) According, important
(B) Duly, urgent
(C) Owing, entire
(D) Added, crucial
(E) Admitting, special
78. On account of the …… in sales the software firm has achieved an eight percent …… in net profit.
(A) surge, fall (B) increase, rise
(C) decline, slope (D) hike, loss
(E) growth, advance
79. We are proud to say that today …… 26 percent of our total accounts are …… by women and senior citizens.
(A) approximate, held
(B) nearly, authorised
(C) over, maintain
(D) above, open
(E) around, operated
80. The company has …… special training to employees on …… to trade online.
(A) announced, benefits
(B) offered, course
(C) imparted, risks
(D) sanction, skills
(E) provided, how
Answewrs With Explanation :
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (e)
51. (c) 52. (E) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (b)
56. (c) In C part not is redundant.
57. (e)
58. (A) Change ‘so’ to ‘as’.
59. (a) Change ‘is’ to ‘are’ because the subject is plural ‘lots of support’.
60. (b) Change ‘reconsidered’ to ‘reconsider or should reconsider’ because of parallelism of the two sentences.
61. (d) Change the position of adverb ‘well’, it should be used in the end of the sentence.
62. (e)
63. (c) Change ‘needy’ to ‘needed’ here we require a verb.
64. (d) Change ‘their’ to ‘its’ because its subject is singular.
65. (A) Change ‘truth’ to ‘true’ or ‘a truth’.
66. (d) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (B) 70. (a)
71. (b) Change ‘locale’ to ‘local’ here we want an adjective.
72. (a) Change ‘exicting’ to ‘existing’. Exciting is not appropriate.
73. (a) Change ‘responds’ to ‘response’.
74. (e) Change ‘adopted’ to ‘adapted’.
75. (d) Change ‘currant’ to ‘current’.
76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (e) 80. (E)

SBI Clerk Reasoning Sample Paper
1 In a certain code RIPPLE is written as 613382 & LIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code ?
(a) 318826 (b) 318286 (c) 618826
(d) 328816 (e) none of these
2 If GIVE is coded as 5137 and BAT is coded as 924, How is GATE coded?
(a) 5427 (b) 5724 (c) 5247
(d) 2547 (e) None of these
3 If PALE, is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590 , how is PEARL coded in that code?
(a) 29530 (b) 24153 (c) 25413
(d) 25430 (e) None of these
4 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785 , then state which is the correct code for the SEDATE
(a) 918731 (b) 954185 (c) 814195
(d) 614781 (e) None of these
5 If in a certain language , ENTRY is coded as 12345 & STEADY is coded as 931785, then state which is the correct code for the ENDEAR
(a) 524519 (b) 174189 (c) 128174
(d) 124179 (e) 164983
6 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COACH coded in that language
(a) 38137 (b) 49148 (c) 48246 (d) 49145 (e) none of these
7 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is COLLER coded in that language
(a) 397749 (b) 497758 (c) 483359 (d) 493376 (e) none of these
8 If in a certain language CHARCOAL is coded as 45164913 & MORALE is coded as 296137 , how is MECHRALE coded in that language
(a) 95378165 (b) 25378195 (c) 27456137 (d) 27386195 (e) none of these
9 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for DISTANT ?
(a) 3765485 (b) 4798165 (c) 3697185
(d) 4768296 (e) none of these
10 If MISTAKE is coded as 9765412 & Naked is coded as 84123 , then what will be the code for NEMISES ?
(a) 7598656 (b) 8597656 (c) 8297626 (d) 435985 (e) none of these
11 If ROPE is coded as 6821 & CHAIR is coded as 73456, then what will be the code for CRAPE?
(a) 73456 (b) 76421 (c) 77246
(d) 77123 (e) None of these
12 In a certain code, 15789 is written as EGKPT and 2346 is written as ALUR. How is 23549 written in that code ?
(a) ALEUT (b) ALGTU (c) ALGUT
(d) ALGRT (e) None of these
13 In a certain code, a number 13479 is written as AQFJL and 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
(a) QLPNKJ (b) QLPNMF (c) QLPMNF
(d) QLPNDF (e) None of these
In a certain language 36492 is written as SMILE and 058 is written as RUN, How are the following figures coded in that language ?
Q:14 33980
(a) SSLNR (b) SSLRN (c) SLSNR
(d) SLNRS (e) None of these
15 6458
(a) MUIN (b) MINU (c) INUM
(d) MIUN (e) IUMN
16 92486
(a) LEIMN (b) ELINR (c) LEINM
(d) EILNM (e) LIENM
17 54324
(a) SIUEI (b) UISEI (c) USIIE
(d) UISIE (e) SUEII
18 90089
(a) NLLRN (b) LRLNN (c) LLRRN
(d) LRRNL (e) RLLNN
19 3425
(a) SEIU (b) SIUE (c) SRUI
(d) RUSI (e) SIEU
20 29463
(a) ELISM (b) ELIMS (c) LIMSE
(d) EILMS (e) None of these
21 If in a certain language PRIVATE is coded as 1234567 & RISK is coded as 2398, How is RIVETS coded in that language?
(a) 687543 (b) 234769 (c) 496321
(d) 246598 (e) None of these.
22 If PLAY is coded as 8123 &RHYME is coded as 49367, How is MALE coded as ?
(a) 6217 (b) 6198 (c) 6395
(d) 6285 (e) None of these
23 In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776. How is 35791 written in that code.
(a) 44882 (b) 44880 (c) 46682
(d) 44682 (e) None of these.
24 In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887. How is 35791 written in that code
(a) 57914 (b) 55914 (c) 5934
(d) 5714 (e) None of these.
25 If MINJUR is coded as 312547 & TADA as 6898, How can MADURAI be coded as?
(a) 3498178 (b) 3894871 (c) 384971
(d) 3894781 (e) None of these.
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c b a c d d c a c b c b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c b d e b b a a b d
Answers With Explantion :-
1. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. P as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2, & R as 6. So, PILLER is coded as 318826.
2. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. G as 5, A as 2, T as 4 & E as 7. So GATE is coded as 5247.
3. The alphabets are coded as shown i. e. p AS 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5, & L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
4. S is coded as 9, E as 1, D as 8, A as 7 & T as 3. So SEDATE is coded as 918731.
5. E is coded as 1, N as 2, D as 8, A as 7 & R as 4. So ENDEAR is coded as 128174.
6. C is coded as 4, O as 9, A as 1 & H as 5.
7. C is code as 4, O as 9, L as 3, E as 7, & R as 6. So, COLLER is coded as 493376.
8. M is coded as 2, E as 7, C as 4, H as 5, R as 6, A as 1 & L as 3. So, MECHRALE is coded as 27456137.
9. D is coded as 3, I as 7, S as 6, T as 5, A as 4, & N as 8. So the DISTANT is coded as 3765485.
10. N is coded as 8, E as 2, M as 9, I as 7 & S as 6. So NEMISES is coded as 8297626.
11. C is coded as 7, R as 6, A as 4, P as 2, & E as 1. So CRAPE is coded as 76421.
12. 2 is coded as A, 3 as L, 5 as G, 4 as U & 9 as T. So 23549 is coded as ALGUT.
13. 3 is coded as Q, 9 as L, 6 as P, 8 as N, 2 as M & 4 as F. So 396824 is coded as QLPNMF.
14. 3 is coded as S, 9 as L, 8 as N & 0 as R. So 33980 is coded as SSLNR.
15. 6 is coded as M, 4 as 1, 5 as U & 8 as N. So 6458 is coded as MIUN.
16. 9 is coded as L, 2 as E, 4 as I, 8 as N, & 6 as M. So, 92486 is coded as LEINM.
17. 5 is coded U, 4 as I, 3 as S & 2 as E. So 54324 is coded as UISEI.
18. 9 is coded as L, 0 as R & 8 as N. So, 90089 is coded as LRRNL.
19. 3 is coded as S, 4 as I, 2 as E & 5 as U. So 3425 is coded as SIEU.
20. 2 is coded as E, 9 as L, 4 as I, 6 as M & 3 as S. So, 29463 is coded as ELIMS.
21. R is coded as 2, I as 3, V as 4, E as 7, T as 6 & S as 9. So, RIVETS is coded as 234769.
22. Here M is coded as 6 , A is coded as 2 , L is coded as 1 , E is coded as 7 , therefore male is coded as 6217
23. In the code the letters at odd places are one place ahead & those at even places are one place before the corresponding letter in the word. So in 35791, 3is written as 4, 5 as 4,7 as 8, 9 as 8 & 1 as 0. The code becomes 44880.
24. 4 will be written as 5, 5 as 6, 8 as 9, 2 as 1, 3 as 4. So the code is 5914.
25. Code is M as 3, A as 8, D as 9, U as 4, R as, 7 & I as 1. So, MADHRI is coded as 3894781.

FREE SBI BANK CLERK GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10

1. The Sir C.V .Raman award for 2008 has been awarded to –

M.Natarajan
Sanjeev Ramchandra Inamdar
Prof. G.Venkatraman
Dr. Naresh Trehan

2. The 2007 FIFA Woman player of the year is –

Birgit Prinz
Christiane
Marta
Sania Mirza

3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games is-

Fuwa
Izz
Cobi

4. Which among the following States would observe 2008 as the‘Year of Education’ ?

Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Bihar
Karnataka

5. Who has written “Superstar India : From Incredible to unstopable” ?

Shobha De
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh

6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?

Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj

7. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
Paraguay
Sudan
Afghanistan
Pakistan

8. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -

15th March,2008
30th March,2008
28th April,2008
4th May,2008

9. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan
10. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?

Parvathy Omanakuttan
Simaran Kaur Mundi
Amrita Thapar
Tanvi Vyas

SBI CLERK COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ SBI BANK CLERK COMPUTER QUIZ

Objective 10 questions

1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?

Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home

font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?

Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?

TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?

Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?

No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word. This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?

Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page?

Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:

Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints:

The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape

In India, accreditation of universities is required by law, unless the institution has been created by a parliamentary mandate. The University Grants Commission (UGC) initiated autonomous institutions award accreditation for higher studies. You need to check whether the institute you plan to attend is accredited by the relevant accrediting agency.

Top Accrediting Agencies in India

Medical Studies

Medical Council of India (MCI)

http://www.mciindia.org

is a government body that recommends recognition or de-recognition of medical qualifications and medical institutions of India or foreign countries.

Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)

regulates pharmacy education in India up to the graduate level. PCI is a statutory body and awards approval rather than accreditation

Indian Nursing Council (INC)

http://www.indiannursingcouncil.org

is an Autonomous Body under the Government of India that oversees and recognizes nursing education in India for graduate, post graduate and doctoral nursing degrees. It also governs the standard of nursing education for nurses midwife, Auxiliary Nurse-Midwives and health visitors by doing inspection of the institutions.

Dental Council of India (DCI)

http://www.dciindia.org

is a statutory body set by the Indian government to regulate Dental Education and other aspects of dentistry.

Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)

http://www.ccimindia.org

is a statutory body constituted under the Indian Medicine Central Council Act 1970, that advises the government in matters relating to the recognition of medical qualifications in the second schedule to Indian Medicine Council Act, 1970. The CCIM grants recognition only to disciplines of Indian medicine such as Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani Tibb

Engineering and Technology

National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)

http://www.nabl-india.org

is the sole government authorized accreditation body for Testing and Calibration laboratories in India. NABL provides autonomous third-party assessment of the quality and technical competence of testing and calibration laboratories

Multiple Disciplines

National Assessment and Accreditation Council - NAAC - is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission. The body accredits universities, colleges and college affiliated programs for under-graduate and post-graduate studies.

All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

Constituted

National Board of Accreditation (NBA)

http://www.nba-aicte.ernet.in

accredits programs rather than colleges or universities.

The following disciplines are accredited by the NBA:

Engineering and Technology
Management
Architecture
Pharmacy
Hotel management and Catering Technology
Town and Country Planning
Applied Arts and Crafts

Note : While AICTE

http://www.aicte.ernet.in

accredits schools/colleges and universities,

the NBA specifically accredits programs of study.

• Research - Job seekers usually forget or neglect this issue without realizing that research is very important. Do your homework on your potential employer, and you will be able to find some interesting points which may help you during your interview. Perform simple research on the company, as it will surely reveal the type of people they are looking for.

This research will also uncover the company’s ethics and working style. You can do research by simply visiting their website. If the website provides financial information, then try to understand their current position in the market.

• Communication - Job seekers usually fail to communicate and present themselves in line with professional expectations. Employers are usually dissatisfied with candidates who are unable to express themselves. They hire employees to solve problems, and if they find your communication skills lacking, then your chances of landing the job are slim to none.

• Interview - During the interview is the time to project yourself - it helps to be on your best behavior. So learn the right techniques - turn off your cell phone, don’t share too much personal information during the interview and don’t ever speak badly of your past employers.

• Dress appropriately - Understand and learn about the culture of the company. Don’t dress casually if the current employees are dressed formally. You must look appropriate to the type of company that you are interviewing with. You want the employer to focus on your skills and accomplishments more than your looks, so be conservative.

• Time - Never be late for an interview. If you can’t be on time, be sure to call the employer and explain the reason. Aim to arrive ten minutes before the interview is actually scheduled to begin.

• Salary and benefits - Don’t discuss salary and the compensation before you have been offered the job. Do not ever try to bring up the topic prematurely, because money is not everything if you consider career satisfaction to be your goal (as you have probably told the employer). Let the interviewer bring up the issue of money.

• Preparation - Prepare well and practice the answers to common interview questions. This will project you as a poised and confident person to the employer.

• Avoid Dishonesty - Never lie to get a position. You need to get the job based on your current skills, and any lies will be exposed eventually anyway.

Avoid possible common mistakes and project your confidence and demonstrate your skills with grace. Don’t hesitate to show your enthusiasm. Whatever contact address or phone number you give, make sure you have a voicemail service and be sure to give them a professional mail address.

There are lots of points to remember when you are trying to get a job. By keeping in mind these common mistakes (and their solutions), you will already have a headstart.

By Tony Jacowski

Tony Jacowski is a quality analyst for The MBA Journal. Aveta Solutions - Six Sigma Online - http://www.sixsigmaonline.org, offers online six sigma training and certification classes for six sigma professionals such as, lean six sigma, black belts, green belts, and yellow belts

It is difficult for you to chat about things in general with people.
(a) Yes (b) No (c) ?

These two questions have similar meanings. If you answer the first one ‘NO’ and the second one ‘YES’, i.e. if you differ in your answers to similar questions you lose marks for every question with the above meaning.

The choices to these questions are:
(a) Yes.
(b) No.
(c) ?

1. You start to work on a project with great deal of enthusiasm.
2. You would rather plan an activity than take part in it.
3. You have more than once taken lead in organizing project or a group of some kind.
4. You like to entertain guests.
5. Your interests change quickly from one thing to another.
6. When you eat a meal with others, you are usually one of the last to finish.
7. You believe in the idea that we should ” eat, drink and be merry, for tomorrow we die.”
8. When you find that something you have bought is defective, you hesitate to demand an exchange or a
refund.
9. You find it easy to find new acquaintances.
10. You are sometimes bubbling over with energy and sometimes very sluggish.
11. You are happiest when you get involved in some projects that calls for rapid action.
12. Other people think of you as being very serious minded.
13. In being thrown by chance with a stranger, you wait for the person to introduce himself or herself.
14. You like to take part in many social activities.
15. You sometimes feel “just miserable” for no good reason at all.
16. You are often so much ” on the go” that sooner or later you may wear yourself out.
17. You like parties you attend to be lively.
18. If you hold an opinion that is radically different that expressed by a lecturer, you are likely to tell the
person about it either during or after the lecture.
19. It is difficult for you to chat about things in general with people.
20. You give little thought to your failures after they are passed.
21. You often wonder where others get all the excess energy they seem to have.
22. You are inclined to stop to think things over before you act.
23. You avoid arguing over a price with a clerk or sales person.
24. You would dislike very much to work alone in some alone place.
25. You often find it difficult to go to sleep at night because you keep thinking of what happened during the
day.
26. You find yourself hurrying to get to places even when there is plenty of time.
27. You like work that requires considerable attention to details.
28. You are satisfied to let some one else take the lead in group activities.
29. You enjoy getting acquainted with people.
30. It takes a lot to get you emotionally stirred up or excited.
31. You work more slowly and deliberately than most people of your sex and age.
32. You are a carefree individual.
33. When people do not play fair you hesitate to say anything about it to them.
34. It bothers you to have people watch you at your work.
35. You have usually been optimistic about your future.
36. You like to have plenty of time to stop and rest.
37. You take life very seriously.
38. You enjoy applying for a job in person.
39. You would like to be a host or hostess for parties at club.
40. You often feel uncomfortable or uneasy.
41. You are the kind of person who is “on the go” all the time.
42. You often crave excitement.
43. The thought of making a speech frightens you.
44. You find it easy to start conversation with strangers.
45. You often feel guilty without a very good reason for it.
46. People think you are a very energetic person.
47. You sometimes make quick decisions that you later wish you hadn’t made.
48. You find it difficult to ask people for money or other donations, even for a cause in which you are
interested.
49. You are so naturally friendly that people immediately feel at ease with you.
50. You daydream a great deal.
51. You are quick in your actions.
52. You have a habit of starting things and then losing interest in them.
53. When you were a child many of your playmates naturally expected you to be the leader.
54. You sometimes avoid social contacts for fear of doing or saying the wrong thing.
55. You have frequent ups and downs in mood, sometimes with and sometimes without apparent cause.
56. You always seem to have plenty of vigour and vitality.
57. It is difficult for you to understand people who get very concerned about things.
58. When a clerk in a store waits on others who come after you, you call his or her attention to the fact.
59. You would be very unhappy if you were prevented from making numerous social contacts.
60. There are times when your future looks very dark.
61. You sometimes wish that people would slow down a bit and give you a chance to catch up.
62. Many of your friends think you take your work too seriously.
63. You hesitate to walk into a meeting when you know that everyone’s eye will be upon you.
64. You limit your friendships mostly to members of your own sex.
65. You almost always feel well and strong.
66. You seem to lack the drive necessary to get as much as other people do.
67. You make decisions on the spur of the moment.
68. You are rather good at bluffing when you find yourself in difficulty.
69. After being introduced to someone , you just cannot think of things to say to make good conversation.
70. You feel lonesome even when with other people.
71. You are able to work for unusually long hours without feeling tired.
72. You often act on the first thought that comes into your head.
73. At the scene of an accident, you take an active part in helping out.
74. You have difficulty in making new friends.
75. Your mood often changes from happiness to sadness or vice versa without knowing why.
76. You talk more slowly than most people.
77. You like to play practical jokes upon others.
78. You take the lead in putting life into a dull party.
79. You would like to belong to as many clubs and social organizations as possible.
80. There are times when your mind seems to work very slowly and other times when it works very rapidly.
81. You like to do things slowly and deliberately.
82. You are a happy-go-lucky individual.
83. When you are served stale or inferior food in a restaurant, you say nothing about it.
84. You would rather apply for a job by writing a letter than by going through with a personal interview.
85. You are often in low spirits.
86. You are inclined to rush from one activity to another without pausing enough for rest.
87. You are so concerned about the future that you do not get as much fun out of the present as you might.
88. When you are attracted to a person whom you have not met earlier you make an active attempt to get
acquainted even though it may be quite difficult.
89. You are inclined to limit your acquaintances to select few
90. you seldom give your past mistakes a second thought.
91. You are less energetic than many people you know.
92. You often stop to analyzed your thoughts and feelings.
93. You speak out in meetings to oppose those whom you feel sure are wrong.
94. You are so shy it bothers you.
95. You are sometimes bothered by having a useless thought come into your mind over and over.
96. You get things in hurry.
97. It is difficult for you to understand how some people can be so unconcerned about the future.
98. You lie to sell things (i.e. to act as a sales person)
99. You are often “Life of the Party”.
100. You find daydreaming very enjoyable.
101. At work or at play other people find it hard to keep up with the pace you set.
102. You can listen to a lecture without feeling restless.
103. You would rather work for a good boss than for yourself.
104. You can express yourself more easily in speech than in writing.
105. You keep in fairly uniform spirits.
106. You dislike to be hurried in your work.
107. You sometimes find yourself “crossing bridges before you come to them”.
108. You find it somewhat difficult to say “no” to a sales person who tries to sell you something you do not
really want.
109. There are only a few friends with whom you can relax and have a good time.
110. You usually keep cheerful in spite of trouble.
111. People sometimes tell you to “slow down” or “take it easy”.
112. You are one of those who drink or smoke more than they know they should.
113. When you think you recognize people you see in a public place, you ask them whether you have met
them before.
114. You prefer to work alone.
115. Disappointment affect you so little that you seldom think about them twice.
116. You are slow and deliberate in movements.
117. You like wild enthusiasm, sometimes to a point bordering on rowdyism at a football or baseball game.
118. You feel self conscious in the presence of important people.
119. People think of you as being a very social type of person.
120. You have often lost sleep over your worries.
121. You can turn out a large amount of work in a short time.
122. You keep at a task until it is done, even after nearly everyone else has given up.
123. You can think of a good excuse when you need one.
124. Other people say that it is difficult to get to know you well.
125. You daydreams are often about things that can never come true.
126. You often run upstairs taking two steps at a time.
127. You seldom let your responsibility interfere with your having a good time.
128. You like to take on important responsibilities such as organizing a new business.
129. You have hesitated to make or to accept “dates” because of shyness.
130. Your mood is very easily influenced by people around you.
131. Others are often amazed by the amount of work you turn out.
132. You generally feel as though you haven’t a care in the world.
133. You find it difficult to get rid of sales person whom you do not care to listen or give your time.
134. You are a listener rather than a talker in a social conversation.
135. You almost always feel that life is very much worth living.
136. It irritates you to have to wait at a crossing for a long freight train to pass.
137. You usually say what you feel like saying at the moment.
138. You like to speak in public.
139. You like to be with people.
140. You generally keep cool and think clearly in exciting situations.
141. Other people regard you as a lively individual.
142. When you get angry, if you let yourself go, you feel better.
143. You seek to avoid all trouble with other people.
144. People seem to enjoy being with you.
145. You sometimes feel listless and tired for no good reason.
146. It is hard to understand why many people are so slow and get so little done.
147. You are fond of betting on horse races and games, whether you can afford it or not.
148. If someone you know has been spreading untrue and bad stories about you, you see the person as
soon as possible and have a talk about it.
149. Shyness keep you from being as popular as you should be.
150. You are generally free from worry about possible misfortunes.

1. In Indian history, which one of the following wars
occurred earliest ?
(a) First Anglo-Afghan war
(b) Second Carnatic war
(c) Third Anglo-Maratha war
(d) Fourth Anglo Mysore war
Ans: ( b ) Second Carnatic war
2. Consider the following statements :
1. The Treaty of Lahore was concluded between Sikhs and
English company during the tenure of Lord Ellen borough.
2. Lord Dalhousie made the annexation of Punjab to the
British dominion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( b ) 2 only
3. Why did Dutch East India Company fail to maintain its
influence in India ?
(a) Portuguese did not allow them to trade in India
(b) There was a growing interference of Dutch Government in
the company?s internal affairs
(c) Dutch indulged in forcible religious conversion of the
people and thus were expelled by local kings
(d) The English forces made them to leave India
Ans: ( d ) The English forces made them to leave India
4. Consider the following statements :
1. Mirabai was a contemporary of Guru Nanak.
2. Ramdas was a contemporary of Shivaji.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
5. Consider the following statements :
1. Ala-ud-din Khalji held religious discourses with Acharya
Mahasena
2. Ala-ud-din Khalji and Muhammadbin-Tughluq demanded one
sixth of the agricultural produce as revenue from peasants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( d ) Neither 1 nor 2
6. Consider the following statements :
1. Muhammad-bin-Tughluq was the Delhi Sultan when
Vijayanagar Empire was founded.
2. Krishna Deva Raya was the ruler of Vijayanagar when
Babur took over from Ibrahim Lodi.
3. Rama Raya was defeated at Talikota when Jahangir was the
Emperor at Delhi.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( a ) 1 and 2
7. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Kashmir was annexed to Mughal Empire by Humayun
(b) Gujarat was annexed to Mughal Empire by Akbar
(c) Malwa was annexed to Mughal Empire by Jahangir
(d) Khandesh was annexed to Mughal Empire by Shahjahan
Ans: ( b ) Gujarat was annexed to Mughal Empire by Akbar
8. Who granted the permission to establish the first British
factory at Hooghli in Bengal ?
(a) Shah Shuja
(b) Murshid Quli Khan
(c) Shuja-ud-din
(d) Alivardi Khan
Ans: ( a ) Shah Shuja
9. Consider the following statements :
1. Mohammad Shah (1719-1748) was the first Mughal ruler to
patronize Urdu.
2. Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote the famous epic Padmavat in
Hindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
10. Who among the following appointed Ibn Batuta as the
Chief Qazi of Delhi ?
(a) Ghiyaz-ud-din Balban
(b) Ala-ud-din Khalji
(c) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
(d) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
Ans: ( d ) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq
11. Nivi, Paridhan and Adhivasa were the
(a) Different types of garments of the Aryans
(b) Government officials of the Aryan kings
(c) Tribal people of Ancient India
(d) Musical instruments of ancient Indians
Ans: ( a ) Different types of garments of the Aryans
12. The first major inscription in classical Sanskrit is
that of
(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(b) Kanishka I
(c) Rudradaman
(d) Samudragupa
Ans: ( c ) Rudradaman
13. Who of the following built the temple of the Sun God at
Konark ?
(a) Anantavarman
(b) Narasimha I
(c) Kapilendra
(d) Purushottama
Ans: ( b ) Narasimha I
14. How can boiling paint of a liquid be reduced ?
(a) By adding a solid of lower melting point
(b) By dissolving a solution solid in it
(c) By increasing the pressure on the liquid
(d) By decreasing the pressure on the liquid
Ans: ( a ) By adding a solid of lower melting point
15. Consider the following statements :
1. Glycerol is used in explosives.
2. Detergents are made from hydrocarbons obtained from cool
or petroleum
3. Sodium perborate is a mild bleaching agent.
4. Methanol is used for making synthetic fibres.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: ( b ) 1, 2 and 3
16. Which one of the following countries does not belong to
the G-8 group of nations ?
(a) Italy
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Australia
Ans: ( a ) Italy
17. Which one of the following periods is covered by the
tenth Five-Year Plan ?
(a) 2001 ? 2006
(b) 2002 ? 2007
(c) 200 ? 2008
(d) 2000 ? 2005
Ans: ( b ) 2002 ? 2007
18. When did UNO officially come into existence ?
(a) 1947
(b) 1939
(c) 1945
(d) 1950
Ans: ( c ) 1945
19. When was decimal coinage introduced in India ?
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1957
(d) 1960
Ans: ( c ) 1957
20. What is the approximate value of escape velocity for the
earth ?
(a) 11 km/s
(b) 50 km/s
(c) 19.5 km/s
(d) 56.5 km/s
Ans: ( a ) 11 km/s
21. Where is Potala Palace situated ?
(a) Tibet
(b) Indonesia
(c) Malaysia
(d) Thailand
Ans: ( a ) Tibet
22. In which country is the world?s highest observatory
located ?
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) USA
(d) Japan
Ans: ( a ) India
23. Who among the following ladies has/have been Governor(s)
of a State/States ?
1. Rajinder Kaur Bhattal
2. Shailja Chandra
3. Justice Fatima Beevi
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( c ) 3 only
24. Where was the first Municipal Corporation in India set up ?
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Madras
Ans: ( b ) Calcutta
25. Consider the following statements :
1. The expenditure to be incurred by the Government and the
revenue to be collected by way of taxes must be approved by
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The charge of impeachment against the President of India
can be brought about by only Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( d ) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Consider the following statements :
1. The Governor of a State in India nominates to the
Legislative Council, where it exists, one-sixth of its members.
2. The Governor of a State in India may nominate to the
Legislative Assembly one person from the Anglo-Indian
community if the feels the community needs representation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
27. What is the maximum strength of Lik Sabha as stated in
the Constitution of India ?
(a) 545
(b) 548
(c) 552
(d) 555
Ans: ( c ) 552
28. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the
Constitution of India deal ?
(a) Details of Indian Union and its territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Union Executive
Ans: ( b ) Citizenship
29. In which one of the following does the subject of
Co-operative Societies fall?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers of Union Government
Ans: ( b ) State List
30. Which of the following States elects only one member for
the Lok Sabha ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Sikkim
(d) Tripura
Ans: ( c ) Sikkim
31. Who among the following received the prestigious Borlaug
Award for generating awareness among farmers about threats
to food security and livelihoods from patents and
intellectual property rights ?
(a) Aruna Roy
(b) Champa Devi
(c) Suman Sahai
(d) Vandana Shiva
Ans: ( c ) Suman Sahai
32. Who among the following is not a dancer ?
(a) Geeta Chandran
(b) Mamta Shankar
(c) Kishori Amonkar
(d) Swapnasundari
Ans: ( c ) Kishori Amonkar
33. Consider the following statements :
1. ICICI Bank is the largest private sector bank in India.
2. Postal Life Insurance is the oldest life insurance
organization in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( a ) 1 only
34. Which one of the following countries is not a member of
North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) ?
(a) Czech Republic
(b) Poland
(c) Romanio
(d) Russia
Ans: ( d ) Russia
35. What is the name of second stealth warship launched by
India ?
(a) Aravalli
(b) Nilgiri
(c) Satpura
(d) Vindhya
Ans: ( c ) Satpura
36. Referring the Union Budget presented by the Finance
Minister in the year 2004, consider the following statements :
1. Investment Commission is proposed to be established.
2. No excise duty to be imposed on computers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
37. Consider the following:
1. Life expectancy at birth.
2. Gross enrolment ratio for schools.
3. Adult literacy rate.
4. Per capita income.
Which of the above is/are the parameters for measurement of
Human Development Index by UNDP ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: ( d ) 1, 2, 3 and 4
38. Consider the following statements :
1. Indira Awaas Yojana seeks to provide shelter to rural
households living below the poverty line.
2. Allotment of house under India Awaas Yojana is made only
in the name of female member of the household.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
39. Where is Satish Dhavan Space Centre located ?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Balasore
(c) Sriharikota
(d) thiruvananthapuram
Ans: ( c ) Sriharikota
40. In October 2004, where did the Prime Minister of India
inaugurate the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor ?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Kalpakkam
(c) Thiruvananthapuram
(d) Trombay
Ans: ( b ) Kalpakkam
41. Ramsay Macdonald?s Communal Award gave
(a) Privy purses to native princes
(b) Communal representation to Muslims
(c) Reservations to Sikhs in elections
(d) Separate electorates for depressed classes
Ans: ( d ) Separate electorates for depressed classes
42. Between whom was the Treaty of Purandhar in 1776 made ?
(a) English and Nizam of Hyderabad
(b) Marathas and Portuguese
(c) Marathas and English
(d) English and Sultan of Mysore
Ans: ( c ) Marathas and English
43. Who of the following was known as Deshbandhu ?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Jyotirao Phule
Ans: ( b ) Chittaranjan Das
44. Consider the following statements :
1. The first session of the Indian National Congress was
held in Calcutta.
2. The second session of the Indian National Congress was
held under the Presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held
their sessions at Lucknow in 1916.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( b ) 2 and 3
45. The first definite step to provide Parliamentary control
over East India Company was taken by
(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitts India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1813
Ans: ( a ) The Regulating Act
46. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: ( b ) The Government of India Act, 1935
47. Consider the following statements :
1. Prior to the establishment of Home Rule League by Annie
Besant, it was Lokmanya Tilak who had set up a Home Rule
League of Poona.
2. The Congress in its Bombay Session in 1915, passed a
resolution demanding Home Rule for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
48. Against whom of the following was the Lahore Conspiracy
case registered during the Indian freedom struggle ?
(a) Lala Hardayal
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(d) Vishnu Ganesh Pingle
Ans: ( d ) Vishnu Ganesh Pingle
49. Which among the following National Highways of India is
the longest ?
(a) NH 1
(b) NH 2
(c) NH 3
(d) NH 4
Ans: ( b ) NH 2
50. Consider the following statements :
1. In India, production of mica is confined to Andhra
Pradesh and Bihar only.
2. In India, gold mines are confined to Karnataka only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( d ) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Which of the following is not a Tiger Reserve ?
(a) Sariska
(b) Bandipur
(c) Manas
(d) Sultanpur
Ans: ( d ) Sultanpur
52. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Azerbaijan : Baku
(b) Tajikistan : Dushanbe
(c) Turkmenistan : Ashkabad
(d) Kazakhstan : Kiev
Ans: ( d ) Kazakhstan : Kiev
53. Consider the following statements : As per Census
2001, in India,
1. More than one-third of the total population is urban.
2. At the national level, the expectation of life at birth
is more for males than females.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( d ) Neither 1 nor 2
54. The electoral college that elects the President of India
consists of the
(a) Elected members of all the State Legislatures, Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State
Assemblies
(c) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
(d) Elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Ans: ( b ) Elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
and State Assemblies
55. What is the Soudi Arabian currency called ?
(a) Dirham
(b) Peso
(c) Dinar
(d) Riyal
Ans: ( d ) Riyal
56. Which is the largest tea producing country in the world ?
(a) Kenya
(b) Indonesia
(c) China
(d) India
Ans: ( d ) India
57. Philip Kotler is well-known as a
(a) Film actor
(b) Swimmer
(c) Management expert
(d) Fashion designer
Ans: ( c ) Management expert
58. Where is Farakka Barrage located ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal
(d) Assam
Ans: ( c ) West Bengal
59. Which one of the following teams won the First One-day
Cricket World Cup held in 1975 ?
(a) England
(b) Australia
(c) West Indies
(d) Pakistan
Ans: ( c ) West Indies
60. Who among the following has not taken more than 500
wickets in Test cricket ?
(a) Courtney Walsh
(b) M. Muralitharan
(c) Shane Warne
(d) Rechard Hadlee
Ans: ( d ) Rechard Hadlee
61. In which one of the following games/sports did Geet
Sethi excel ?
(a) Badminton
(b) Table Tennis
(c) Billiards
(d) Lawn Tennis
Ans: ( c ) Billiards
62. Which country does the famous athlete Frankie Fredericks
come from ?
(a) Kenya
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Nigeria
(d) Namibia
Ans: ( d ) Namibia
63. With which game/sport is S. Apoorwa associated ?
(a) Carom
(b) Chess
(c) Swimming
(d) Table Tennis
Ans: ( a ) Carom
64. Which one of the pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Abdulla Ahmad Badawi : Malaysia
(b) Lee Hsien Loong : China
(c) Susilo Bambang Yudhoyono : Indonesia
(d) Thakshin Shinawatra : Thailand
Ans: ( b ) Lee Hsien Loong : China
65. Consider the following statements :
1. In the Tenth Five-Year Plan, agriculture is projected to
be the center point of our development strategy.
2. The Tenth Five-Year Plan has targeted an average annual
growth rate of 8%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
66. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
UN Organisation Headquarters
(a) UNICEF : New York
(b) UNCTAD : Geneva
(c) UNDP : Rome
(d) UNEP : Nairobi
Ans: ( c ) UNDP : Rome
67. Consider the following pairs :
1. Dadavatara Temple : Deogarh
2. Trivikarama Shrine : Ramtek
3. Kailasa Temple : Ellora
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( a ) 1 and 2
68. What is the bond between two amino acids in protein called ?
(a) Ester bond
(b) Glycosidic bond
(c) Peptide bond
(d) Phosphodiester bond
Ans: ( c ) Peptide bond
69. Which one of the following phenomena cannot be observed
on the surface of the moon ?
(a) Rising and setting of the sun
(b) Solar eclipse
(c) Motion of comets
(d) Twinkling of stars
Ans: ( d ) Twinkling of stars
70. What is the observation of multiple colours in thin
films of oil floating on the surface of water due to ?
(a) Selective absorption of light
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Diffraction of light
(d) Interference of light
Ans: ( d ) Interference of light
71. Whose experiments proved that the speed of light was
always the same ?
(a) James Clark Maxwell
(b) Michelson and Morley
(c) Miller and Stanley
(d) Werner Heisenberg
Ans: ( b ) Michelson and Morley
72. Consider the following statements :
1. Edwin Hubble discovered that distant galaxies are moving
away from us.
2. Max Planck proposed that light comes in the form of
quanta (packets of energy).
3. Stephen Hawking proposed a new theory combining the
General Relativity and Uncertainty Principle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( d ) 1, 2 and 3
73. Consider the following statements :
1. When two water droplets merge with each other to form a
large droplet, energy is liberated.
2. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is directly
proportional to its surface tension.
3. When a drop of waterbreaks into two droplets of equal
size, the sum of the surface areas of the two droplets is
equal to that of the original drop.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( a ) 1 and 2
74. Consider the following statements :
1. The nerve tissues in human body contain phosphorus.
2. In nature, sulphur always occurs in the combined state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( a ) 1 only
75. When sound wave is refracted from air to water, which of
the following will remain unchanged ?
(a) Wave number
(b) Wavelength
(c) Wave velocity
(d) Frequency
Ans: ( d ) Frequency
76. Which electromagnetic radiation is emitted by
radioactive substances ?
(a) -rays
(b) Radio waves
(c) Micro waves
(d) X-rays
Ans: ( a ) -rays
77. Who invented vaccination ?
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Edward Jenner
(c) Janas Salk
(d) Louis Pasteor
Ans: ( b ) Edward Jenner
78. Consider the following elements
1. Cobalt
2. Phosphorus
3. Zinc
Which of the above elements are required for maintaining
healthy human body ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( d ) 1, 2 and 3
79. What does protein deficiency in children, usually
between the age of 1 to 3 years, cause ?
(a) Anaemia
(b) Goitre
(c) Kwashiorkor
(d) Xerophthalmia
Ans: ( c ) Kwashiorkor
80. Consider the following plants
1. Cycas
2. Pea
3. Pinus
In which of the above, the seeds are not enclosed in fruits ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: ( c ) 1 and 3
81. Deficiency of which one of the following causes
knock-knee, bow legs and pigeon chest in children ?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
Ans: ( c ) Vitamin D
82. Deficiency of which vitamin results in inflammation of
skin and eczema along with diarrhoea ?
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Folic acid
(c) Nicotinic acid
(d) Pantothenic acid
Ans: ( c ) Nicotinic acid
83. Which of the following produces oestrogen in the human
female reproductive system ?
(a) Cervix
(b) Ovary
(c) Fallopian tube
(d) Uterus
Ans: ( b ) Ovary
84. Which part of the brain controls respiration ?
(a) Cerebrarl cortex
(b) Medulla
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Cerebrum
Ans: ( b ) Medulla
85. Synthetic ethanal is produced by reacting ethane (in the
presence of phosphoric acid) with
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Potassium dichromate
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water
Ans: ( a ) Hydrogen
86. Consider the following statements :
1. Marble is a constituent of tooth paste.
2. Gypsum is used for the manufacture of ammonium sulphate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( b ) 2 only
87. In which among the following molecules is the distance
between two adjacent carbon atoms largest ?
(a) Benzene
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethyne
Ans: ( d ) Ethyne
88. Which one of the following is known as Salt Petre ?
(a) NaCl
(b) NaNO3
(c) Na2CO3
(d) NaHCO3
Ans: ( b ) NaNO3
89. Consider the following statements :
1. In India, the power to promulgate Ordinances lies with
the President only.
2. The power to declare emergency in a State in India lies
with the President only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( b ) 2 only
90. By which Amendment Act of the Constitution of India were
the Directive Principles of the state policy given
precedence over the Fundamental Rights wherever they come
into conflict ?
(a) 40th
(b) 42nd
(c) 44th
(d) 46th
Ans: ( b ) 42nd
91. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution
passed by
(a) A majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha
(b) A majority of the then members of both Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha
(c) Two-thirds majority of the total members of the Lok Sabha
(d) Two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha members present
and voting
Ans: ( a ) A majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha
92. Consider the following statements :
1. The Council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to
both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The President of India cannot appoint any one as Union
Minister not recommended by Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( b ) 2 only
93. Consider the following statements :
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the
Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for
direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India
is to cast his/her vote in General or State elections so as
to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: ( b ) 2 and 3
94. Consider the following statements :
1. The atmospheric pressure is more at the poles as compared
to the equator.
2. The annual range of temperature is more at the equator as
compared to the poles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
95. Consider the following statements :
1. Korba is west to Rourkela.
2. Rourkela is south to Ranchi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( c ) Both 1 and 2
96. Consider the following statements :
1. Mauritius island is of volcanic origin.
2. Maldives are coral islands.
3. Reunion islands are mountain peaks projected out of water.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( d ) 1, 2 and 3
97. Consider the following :
1. Chilka Lake
2. Pulicat Lake
3. Vembanad Lake
Which of the above is/are lagoon(s) ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( d ) 1, 2 and 3
98. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Croatia : Adriatic Sea
(b) France : Bay of Biscay
(c) Norway : Baffin Bay
(d) Romania : Black sea
Ans: ( c ) Norway : Baffin Bay
99. Through which one of the following countries the Tropic
of Cancer does not pass through ?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) China
(c) Myanmar
(d) Nepal
Ans: ( d ) Nepal
100. Consider the following statements :
1. Foehn is a very cold and dry wind with a high velocity
and brings down the temperature below freezing point.
2. Mistral is a strong, gusty, dry and warm wind which
develops on the leeward side of a mountain range.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: ( d ) Neither 1 nor 2
101. If the usual formula for time calculation were to be
applied, what would be the approximate time difference
between extreme west and east parts of India ?
(a) 1 hr
(b) 1 ? hrs
(c) 2 hrs
(d) 2 ? hrs
Ans: ( c ) 2 hrs
102. In India, which one of the following has the lowest
density of population as per Census 2001 ?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Ans: ( b ) Arunachal Pradesh